FIRST REGULAR SESSION

[PERFECTED]

HOUSE COMMITTEE SUBSTITUTE FOR

HOUSE BILL NO. 210

97TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

0415H.02P                                                                                                                                                 D. ADAM CRUMBLISS, Chief Clerk


 

AN ACT

To repeal sections 32.057, 105.478, 115.631, 130.028, 130.031, 142.909, 142.911, 143.1001, 143.1003, 149.200, 160.261, 167.115, 167.171, 168.071, 188.023, 188.030, 190.621, 191.905, 191.914, 193.315, 194.410, 194.425, 195.005, 195.010, 195.015, 195.016, 195.017, 195.025, 195.030, 195.040, 195.050, 195.060, 195.080, 195.100, 195.110, 195.130, 195.135, 195.140, 195.150, 195.180, 195.190, 195.195, 195.198, 195.202, 195.204, 195.211, 195.212, 195.213, 195.214, 195.217, 195.218, 195.219, 195.222, 195.223, 195.226, 195.233, 195.235, 195.241, 195.242, 195.246, 195.248, 195.252, 195.254, 195.256, 195.275, 195.280, 195.285, 195.291, 195.292, 195.295, 195.296, 195.367, 195.369, 195.371, 195.375, 195.417, 195.418, 195.420, 195.501, 195.503, 195.505, 195.507, 195.509, 195.511, 195.515, 196.979, 197.266, 197.326, 198.015, 198.070, 198.097, 198.158, 205.965, 210.117, 210.165, 211.038, 211.071, 211.447, 214.410, 217.010, 217.360, 217.385, 217.400, 217.405, 217.542, 217.543, 217.692, 217.703, 221.025, 221.111, 221.353, 252.235, 253.080, 260.207, 260.208, 260.211, 260.212, 260.379, 270.260, 276.421, 276.536, 277.180, 285.306, 285.308, 287.128, 287.129, 288.250, 288.395, 301.390, 301.400, 301.401, 301.559, 301.640, 302.015, 302.020, 302.181, 302.304, 302.321, 302.500, 302.540, 302.541, 302.605, 302.705, 302.710, 302.727, 302.745, 302.750, 302.755, 302.780, 303.024, 303.025, 304.070, 306.110, 306.111, 306.112, 306.114, 306.116, 306.117, 306.118, 306.119, 306.141, 306.420, 311.325, 313.004, 313.040, 313.290, 313.550, 313.660, 313.830, 317.018, 320.089, 320.161, 324.1142, 324.1148, 334.250, 335.096, 338.195, 338.315, 338.370, 339.100, 354.320, 362.170, 367.031, 367.045, 374.210, 374.216, 374.702, 374.757, 374.789, 375.310, 375.537, 375.720, 375.786, 375.991, 375.1176, 375.1287, 375.1312, 380.391, 382.275, 389.653, 407.020, 407.095, 407.420, 407.436, 407.521, 407.536, 407.544, 407.740, 407.1082, 407.1252, 411.260, 411.287, 411.371, 411.517, 411.770, 413.229, 429.012, 429.013, 429.014, 436.485, 443.810, 443.819, 453.110, 455.085, 455.538, 542.402, 544.665, 556.011, 556.016, 556.021, 556.022, 556.026, 556.036, 556.037, 556.041, 556.046, 556.051, 556.056, 556.061, 556.063, 557.016, 557.021, 557.026, 557.031, 557.035, 557.036, 557.041, 557.046, 558.011, 558.016, 558.018, 558.019, 558.026, 558.031, 558.041, 558.046, 559.012, 559.021, 559.036, 559.100, 559.105, 559.106, 559.107, 559.110, 559.115, 559.117, 559.120, 559.125, 559.600, 559.604, 559.633, 560.011, 560.016, 560.021, 560.026, 560.031, 560.036, 561.016, 561.021, 561.026, 562.011, 562.016, 562.031, 562.036, 562.041, 562.051, 562.056, 562.061, 562.066, 562.071, 562.076, 562.086, 563.021, 563.026, 563.033, 563.046, 563.051, 563.056, 563.061, 563.070, 564.011, 564.016, 565.002, 565.004, 565.020, 565.021, 565.023, 565.024, 565.025, 565.030, 565.032, 565.035, 565.040, 565.050, 565.060, 565.063, 565.065, 565.070, 565.072, 565.073, 565.074, 565.075, 565.080, 565.081, 565.082, 565.083, 565.084, 565.085, 565.086, 565.090, 565.092, 565.095, 565.100, 565.110, 565.115, 565.120, 565.130, 565.140, 565.149, 565.150, 565.153, 565.156, 565.160, 565.163, 565.165, 565.169, 565.180, 565.182, 565.184, 565.186, 565.188, 565.190, 565.200, 565.210, 565.212, 565.214, 565.216, 565.218, 565.220, 565.225, 565.250, 565.252, 565.253, 565.255, 565.300, 565.350, 566.010, 566.013, 566.020, 566.023, 566.025, 566.030, 566.032, 566.034, 566.040, 566.060, 566.062, 566.064, 566.067, 566.068, 566.070, 566.083, 566.086, 566.090, 566.093, 566.095, 566.100, 566.111, 566.135, 566.140, 566.141, 566.145, 566.147, 566.148, 566.149, 566.150, 566.151, 566.153, 566.155, 566.203, 566.206, 566.209, 566.212, 566.213, 566.215, 566.218, 566.221, 566.224, 566.226, 566.265, 567.010, 567.020, 567.030, 567.040, 567.050, 567.060, 567.070, 567.080, 567.085, 567.087, 567.110, 567.120, 568.010, 568.020, 568.030, 568.032, 568.040, 568.045, 568.050, 568.052, 568.060, 568.065, 568.070, 568.080, 568.090, 568.100, 568.110, 568.120, 568.175, 569.010, 569.020, 569.025, 569.030, 569.035, 569.040, 569.050, 569.055, 569.060, 569.065, 569.067, 569.070, 569.072, 569.080, 569.090, 569.094, 569.095, 569.097, 569.099, 569.100, 569.120, 569.130, 569.140, 569.145, 569.150, 569.155, 569.160, 569.170, 569.180, 570.010, 570.020, 570.030, 570.033, 570.040, 570.050, 570.055, 570.070, 570.080, 570.085, 570.087, 570.090, 570.100, 570.103, 570.110, 570.120, 570.123, 570.125, 570.130, 570.135, 570.140, 570.145, 570.150, 570.155, 570.160, 570.170, 570.180, 570.190, 570.200, 570.210, 570.215, 570.217, 570.219, 570.220, 570.222, 570.223, 570.224, 570.225, 570.226, 570.230, 570.235, 570.240, 570.241, 570.245, 570.255, 570.300, 570.310, 570.380, 571.010, 571.014, 571.015, 571.017, 571.020, 571.030, 571.045, 571.050, 571.060, 571.063, 571.070, 571.072, 571.080, 571.085, 571.087, 571.093, 571.095, 571.101, 571.102, 571.104, 571.107, 571.111, 571.114, 571.117, 571.121, 571.150, 572.010, 572.020, 572.030, 572.040, 572.050, 572.060, 572.070, 572.110, 572.120, 573.010, 573.013, 573.020, 573.023, 573.025, 573.030, 573.035, 573.037, 573.040, 573.050, 573.052, 573.060, 573.065, 573.090, 573.100, 573.500, 573.509, 573.528, 573.531, 574.010, 574.020, 574.030, 574.040, 574.050, 574.060, 574.070, 574.075, 574.085, 574.105, 574.115, 575.020, 575.021, 575.030, 575.040, 575.050, 575.060, 575.070, 575.080, 575.090, 575.100, 575.110, 575.120, 575.130, 575.145, 575.150, 575.153, 575.159, 575.160, 575.170, 575.180, 575.190, 575.195, 575.200, 575.205, 575.206, 575.210, 575.220, 575.230, 575.240, 575.250, 575.260, 575.270, 575.280, 575.290, 575.300, 575.310, 575.320, 575.350, 575.353, 576.010, 576.020, 576.030, 576.040, 576.050, 576.060, 576.070, 576.080, 577.001, 577.005, 577.006, 577.010, 577.012, 577.017, 577.020, 577.021, 577.023, 577.026, 577.029, 577.031, 577.037, 577.039, 577.041, 577.049, 577.051, 577.052, 577.054, 577.060, 577.065, 577.068, 577.070, 577.071, 577.073, 577.075, 577.076, 577.080, 577.090, 577.100, 577.105, 577.110, 577.150, 577.155, 577.160, 577.161, 577.201, 577.203, 577.206, 577.208, 577.211, 577.214, 577.217, 577.221, 577.500, 577.505, 577.510, 577.515, 577.520, 577.525, 577.530, 577.600, 577.602, 577.604, 577.606, 577.608, 577.610, 577.612, 577.614, 577.625, 577.628, 577.675, 577.680, 578.008, 578.009, 578.012, 578.018, 578.021, 578.023, 578.024, 578.025, 578.027, 578.028, 578.029, 578.030, 578.075, 578.095, 578.100, 578.105, 578.106, 578.110, 578.120, 578.150, 578.151, 578.152, 578.153, 578.154, 578.173, 578.176, 578.200, 578.205, 578.210, 578.215, 578.220, 578.225, 578.250, 578.255, 578.260, 578.265, 578.300, 578.305, 578.310, 578.315, 578.320, 578.325, 578.330, 578.350, 578.353, 578.360, 578.363, 578.365, 578.375, 578.377, 578.379, 578.381, 578.383, 578.385, 578.387, 578.389, 578.390, 578.405, 578.407, 578.409, 578.412, 578.414, 578.416, 578.418, 578.420, 578.421, 578.425, 578.430, 578.433, 578.437, 578.445, 578.450, 578.500, 578.503, 578.510, 578.520, 578.525, 578.530, 578.570, 578.614, 589.015, 589.425, 590.700, 610.125, 630.155, 630.165, 632.480, 660.250, 660.255, 660.260, 660.261, 660.263, 660.265, 660.270, 660.275, 660.280, 660.285, 660.290, 660.295, 660.300, 660.305, 660.310, 660.315, 660.317, 660.320, 660.321, and 701.320, RSMo, and section 302.060 as enacted by conference committee substitute for senate substitute for senate committee substitute for house committee substitute for house bill no. 1402 merged with conference committee substitute for house committee substitute no. 2 for senate committee substitute for senate bill no. 480, ninety-sixth general assembly, second regular session, and section 302.060 as enacted by conference committee substitute for senate substitute for senate committee substitute for house committee substitute for house bill no. 1402, ninety-sixth general assembly, second regular session, and section 476.055 as enacted by senate committee substitute for house bill no. 1460 merged with conference committee substitute for house committee substitute for senate bill no. 628, ninety-sixth general assembly, second regular session, and section 476.055 as enacted by conference committee substitute for house committee substitute for senate bill no. 636, ninety-sixth general assembly, second regular session, and to enact in lieu thereof seven hundred twenty-eight new sections for the sole purpose of restructuring the Missouri criminal code, with penalty provisions and an effective date for a certain section.




Be it enacted by the General Assembly of the state of Missouri, as follows:


            Section A. Sections 32.057, 105.478, 115.631, 130.028, 130.031, 142.909, 142.911, 143.1001, 143.1003, 149.200, 160.261, 167.115, 167.171, 168.071, 188.023, 188.030, 190.621, 191.905, 191.914, 193.315, 194.410, 194.425, 195.005, 195.010, 195.015, 195.016, 195.017, 195.025, 195.030, 195.040, 195.050, 195.060, 195.080, 195.100, 195.110, 195.130, 195.135, 195.140, 195.150, 195.180, 195.190, 195.195, 195.198, 195.202, 195.204, 195.211, 195.212, 195.213, 195.214, 195.217, 195.218, 195.219, 195.222, 195.223, 195.226, 195.233, 195.235, 195.241, 195.242, 195.246, 195.248, 195.252, 195.254, 195.256, 195.275, 195.280, 195.285, 195.291, 195.292, 195.295, 195.296, 195.367, 195.369, 195.371, 195.375, 195.417, 195.418, 195.420, 195.501, 195.503, 195.505, 195.507, 195.509, 195.511, 195.515, 196.979, 197.266, 197.326, 198.015, 198.070, 198.097, 198.158, 205.965, 210.117, 210.165, 211.038, 211.071, 211.447, 214.410, 217.010, 217.360, 217.385, 217.400, 217.405, 217.542, 217.543, 217.692, 217.703, 221.025, 221.111, 221.353, 252.235, 253.080, 260.207, 260.208, 260.211, 260.212, 260.379, 270.260, 276.421, 276.536, 277.180, 285.306, 285.308, 287.128, 287.129, 288.250, 288.395, 301.390, 301.400, 301.401, 301.559, 301.640, 302.015, 302.020, 302.181, 302.304, 302.321, 302.500, 302.540, 302.541, 302.605, 302.705, 302.710, 302.727, 302.745, 302.750, 302.755, 302.780, 303.024, 303.025, 304.070, 306.110, 306.111, 306.112, 306.114, 306.116, 306.117, 306.118, 306.119, 306.141, 306.420, 311.325, 313.004, 313.040, 313.290, 313.550, 313.660, 313.830, 317.018, 320.089, 320.161, 324.1142, 324.1148, 334.250, 335.096, 338.195, 338.315, 338.370, 339.100, 354.320, 362.170, 367.031, 367.045, 374.210, 374.216, 374.702, 374.757, 374.789, 375.310, 375.537, 375.720, 375.786, 375.991, 375.1176, 375.1287, 375.1312, 380.391, 382.275, 389.653, 407.020, 407.095, 407.420, 407.436, 407.521, 407.536, 407.544, 407.740, 407.1082, 407.1252, 411.260, 411.287, 411.371, 411.517, 411.770, 413.229, 429.012, 429.013, 429.014, 436.485, 443.810, 443.819, 453.110, 455.085, 455.538, 542.402, 544.665, 556.011, 556.016, 556.021, 556.022, 556.026, 556.036, 556.037, 556.041, 556.046, 556.051, 556.056, 556.061, 556.063, 557.016, 557.021, 557.026, 557.031, 557.035, 557.036, 557.041, 557.046, 558.011, 558.016, 558.018, 558.019, 558.026, 558.031, 558.041, 558.046, 559.012, 559.021, 559.036, 559.100, 559.105, 559.106, 559.107, 559.110, 559.115, 559.117, 559.120, 559.125, 559.600, 559.604, 559.633, 560.011, 560.016, 560.021, 560.026, 560.031, 560.036, 561.016, 561.021, 561.026, 562.011, 562.016, 562.031, 562.036, 562.041, 562.051, 562.056, 562.061, 562.066, 562.071, 562.076, 562.086, 563.021, 563.026, 563.033, 563.046, 563.051, 563.056, 563.061, 563.070, 564.011, 564.016, 565.002, 565.004, 565.020, 565.021, 565.023, 565.024, 565.025, 565.030, 565.032, 565.035, 565.040, 565.050, 565.060, 565.063, 565.065, 565.070, 565.072, 565.073, 565.074, 565.075, 565.080, 565.081, 565.082, 565.083, 565.084, 565.085, 565.086, 565.090, 565.092, 565.095, 565.100, 565.110, 565.115, 565.120, 565.130, 565.140, 565.149, 565.150, 565.153, 565.156, 565.160, 565.163, 565.165, 565.169, 565.180, 565.182, 565.184, 565.186, 565.188, 565.190, 565.200, 565.210, 565.212, 565.214, 565.216, 565.218, 565.220, 565.225, 565.250, 565.252, 565.253, 565.255, 565.300, 565.350, 566.010, 566.013, 566.020, 566.023, 566.025, 566.030, 566.032, 566.034, 566.040, 566.060, 566.062, 566.064, 566.067, 566.068, 566.070, 566.083, 566.086, 566.090, 566.093, 566.095, 566.100, 566.111, 566.135, 566.140, 566.141, 566.145, 566.147, 566.148, 566.149, 566.150, 566.151, 566.153, 566.155, 566.203, 566.206, 566.209, 566.212, 566.213, 566.215, 566.218, 566.221, 566.224, 566.226, 566.265, 567.010, 567.020, 567.030, 567.040, 567.050, 567.060, 567.070, 567.080, 567.085, 567.087, 567.110, 567.120, 568.010, 568.020, 568.030, 568.032, 568.040, 568.045, 568.050, 568.052, 568.060, 568.065, 568.070, 568.080, 568.090, 568.100, 568.110, 568.120, 568.175, 569.010, 569.020, 569.025, 569.030, 569.035, 569.040, 569.050, 569.055, 569.060, 569.065, 569.067, 569.070, 569.072, 569.080, 569.090, 569.094, 569.095, 569.097, 569.099, 569.100, 569.120, 569.130, 569.140, 569.145, 569.150, 569.155, 569.160, 569.170, 569.180, 570.010, 570.020, 570.030, 570.033, 570.040, 570.050, 570.055, 570.070, 570.080, 570.085, 570.087, 570.090, 570.100, 570.103, 570.110, 570.120, 570.123, 570.125, 570.130, 570.135, 570.140, 570.145, 570.150, 570.155, 570.160, 570.170, 570.180, 570.190, 570.200, 570.210, 570.215, 570.217, 570.219, 570.220, 570.222, 570.223, 570.224, 570.225, 570.226, 570.230, 570.235, 570.240, 570.241, 570.245, 570.255, 570.300, 570.310, 570.380, 571.010, 571.014, 571.015, 571.017, 571.020, 571.030, 571.045, 571.050, 571.060, 571.063, 571.070, 571.072, 571.080, 571.085, 571.087, 571.093, 571.095, 571.101, 571.102, 571.104, 571.107, 571.111, 571.114, 571.117, 571.121, 571.150, 572.010, 572.020, 572.030, 572.040, 572.050, 572.060, 572.070, 572.110, 572.120, 573.010, 573.013, 573.020, 573.023, 573.025, 573.030, 573.035, 573.037, 573.040, 573.050, 573.052, 573.060, 573.065, 573.090, 573.100, 573.500, 573.509, 573.528, 573.531, 574.010, 574.020, 574.030, 574.040, 574.050, 574.060, 574.070, 574.075, 574.085, 574.105, 574.115, 575.020, 575.021, 575.030, 575.040, 575.050, 575.060, 575.070, 575.080, 575.090, 575.100, 575.110, 575.120, 575.130, 575.145, 575.150, 575.153, 575.159, 575.160, 575.170, 575.180, 575.190, 575.195, 575.200, 575.205, 575.206, 575.210, 575.220, 575.230, 575.240, 575.250, 575.260, 575.270, 575.280, 575.290, 575.300, 575.310, 575.320, 575.350, 575.353, 576.010, 576.020, 576.030, 576.040, 576.050, 576.060, 576.070, 576.080, 577.001, 577.005, 577.006, 577.010, 577.012, 577.017, 577.020, 577.021, 577.023, 577.026, 577.029, 577.031, 577.037, 577.039, 577.041, 577.049, 577.051, 577.052, 577.054, 577.060, 577.065, 577.068, 577.070, 577.071, 577.073, 577.075, 577.076, 577.080, 577.090, 577.100, 577.105, 577.110, 577.150, 577.155, 577.160, 577.161, 577.201, 577.203, 577.206, 577.208, 577.211, 577.214, 577.217, 577.221, 577.500, 577.505, 577.510, 577.515, 577.520, 577.525, 577.530, 577.600, 577.602, 577.604, 577.606, 577.608, 577.610, 577.612, 577.614, 577.625, 577.628, 577.675, 577.680, 578.008, 578.009, 578.012, 578.018, 578.021, 578.023, 578.024, 578.025, 578.027, 578.028, 578.029, 578.030, 578.075, 578.095, 578.100, 578.105, 578.106, 578.110, 578.120, 578.150, 578.151, 578.152, 578.153, 578.154, 578.173, 578.176, 578.200, 578.205, 578.210, 578.215, 578.220, 578.225, 578.250, 578.255, 578.260, 578.265, 578.300, 578.305, 578.310, 578.315, 578.320, 578.325, 578.330, 578.350, 578.353, 578.360, 578.363, 578.365, 578.375, 578.377, 578.379, 578.381, 578.383, 578.385, 578.387, 578.389, 578.390, 578.405, 578.407, 578.409, 578.412, 578.414, 578.416, 578.418, 578.420, 578.421, 578.425, 578.430, 578.433, 578.437, 578.445, 578.450, 578.500, 578.503, 578.510, 578.520, 578.525, 578.530, 578.570, 578.614, 589.015, 589.425, 590.700, 610.125, 630.155, 630.165, 632.480, 660.250, 660.255, 660.260, 660.261, 660.263, 660.265, 660.270, 660.275, 660.280, 660.285, 660.290, 660.295, 660.300, 660.305, 660.310, 660.315, 660.317, 660.320, 660.321, and 701.320, RSMo, and section 302.060 as enacted by conference committee substitute for senate substitute for senate committee substitute for house committee substitute for house bill no. 1402 merged with conference committee substitute for house committee substitute no. 2 for senate committee substitute for senate bill no. 480, ninety-sixth general assembly, second regular session, and section 302.060 as enacted by conference committee substitute for senate substitute for senate committee substitute for house committee substitute for house bill no. 1402, ninety-sixth general assembly, second regular session, and section 476.055 as enacted by senate committee substitute for house bill no. 1460 merged with conference committee substitute for house committee substitute for senate bill no. 628, ninety-sixth general assembly, second regular session, and section 476.055 as enacted by conference committee substitute for house committee substitute for senate bill no. 636, ninety-sixth general assembly, second regular session, are repealed and seven hundred twenty-eight new sections enacted in lieu thereof, to be known as sections 27.105, 27.110, 32.057, 43.544, 105.478, 115.631, 130.028, 130.031, 142.909, 142.911, 143.1001, 143.1003, 149.200, 160.261, 167.115, 167.171, 168.071, 188.023, 188.030, 190.621, 191.905, 191.914, 193.315, 194.410, 194.425, 195.005, 195.010, 195.015, 195.016, 195.017, 195.030, 195.040, 195.050, 195.060, 195.080, 195.100, 195.140, 195.150, 195.190, 195.195, 195.198, 195.375, 195.417, 195.418, 196.979, 197.266, 197.326, 197.1000, 197.1002, 197.1004, 197.1006, 197.1008, 197.1010, 197.1012, 197.1014, 197.1016, 197.1018, 197.1020, 197.1022, 197.1024, 197.1026, 197.1028, 197.1030, 197.1032, 197.1034, 197.1036, 197.1038, 197.1040, 197.1042, 198.015, 198.070, 198.097, 198.158, 205.965, 210.117, 210.165, 211.038, 211.071, 211.447, 214.410, 217.010, 217.360, 217.385, 217.400, 217.405, 217.542, 217.543, 217.692, 217.703, 221.025, 221.111, 221.353, 252.235, 253.080, 260.207, 260.208, 260.211, 260.212, 260.379, 270.260, 276.421, 276.536, 277.180, 285.306, 285.308, 287.128, 287.129, 288.250, 288.395, 301.390, 301.400, 301.401, 301.559, 301.640, 302.015, 302.020, 302.060, 302.181, 302.304, 302.321, 302.400, 302.405, 302.410, 302.415, 302.420, 302.425, 302.426, 302.440, 302.442, 302.454, 302.456, 302.458, 302.460, 302.462, 302.500, 302.540, 302.541, 302.574, 302.580, 302.584, 302.592, 302.605, 302.705, 302.710, 302.727, 302.745, 302.750, 302.755, 302.780, 303.024, 303.025, 304.070, 305.125, 305.126, 306.110, 306.111, 306.420, 311.315, 311.325, 313.004, 313.040, 313.290, 313.550, 313.660, 313.830, 317.018, 319.1000, 319.1005, 319.1007, 319.1010, 319.1025, 319.1028, 319.1031, 319.1034, 319.1037, 319.1040, 319.1043, 320.089, 320.161, 324.1142, 324.1148, 334.250, 335.096, 338.195, 338.315, 338.370, 339.100, 351.493, 354.320, 362.170, 367.031, 367.045, 374.210, 374.216, 374.702, 374.757, 374.789, 375.310, 375.537, 375.720, 375.786, 375.991, 375.1176, 375.1287, 375.1312, 380.391, 382.275, 389.653, 407.020, 407.095, 407.420, 407.436, 407.521, 407.536, 407.544, 407.740, 407.1082, 407.1252, 411.260, 411.287, 411.371, 411.517, 411.770, 413.229, 429.012, 429.013, 429.014, 436.485, 443.810, 443.819, 453.110, 455.085, 455.538, 476.055, 479.172, 513.660, 537.123, 537.127, 542.402, 542.425, 544.218, 544.472, 544.665, 545.940, 556.011, 556.021, 556.026, 556.036, 556.037, 556.038, 556.041, 556.046, 556.061, 556.101, 557.016, 557.021, 557.026, 557.031, 557.035, 557.036, 557.051, 558.002, 558.004, 558.006, 558.008, 558.011, 558.016, 558.018, 558.019, 558.026, 558.031, 558.041, 558.046, 559.012, 559.021, 559.036, 559.100, 559.105, 559.106, 559.107, 559.110, 559.115, 559.117, 559.120, 559.125, 559.600, 559.604, 559.633, 561.016, 561.021, 561.026, 562.011, 562.012, 562.014, 562.016, 562.031, 562.036, 562.041, 562.051, 562.056, 562.061, 562.066, 562.071, 562.076, 562.086, 563.021, 563.026, 563.033, 563.046, 563.051, 563.056, 563.061, 563.070, 565.002, 565.004, 565.010, 565.020, 565.021, 565.023, 565.024, 565.027, 565.029, 565.030, 565.032, 565.035, 565.040, 565.050, 565.052, 565.054, 565.056, 565.072, 565.073, 565.074, 565.076, 565.079, 565.090, 565.091, 565.110, 565.115, 565.120, 565.130, 565.140, 565.150, 565.153, 565.156, 565.160, 565.163, 565.184, 565.188, 565.189, 565.218, 565.222, 565.225, 565.227, 565.240, 565.252, 565.300, 566.010, 566.020, 566.023, 566.030, 566.031, 566.032, 566.034, 566.060, 566.061, 566.062, 566.064, 566.067, 566.068, 566.069, 566.071, 566.083, 566.086, 566.090, 566.093, 566.095, 566.100, 566.111, 566.115, 566.116, 566.125, 566.145, 566.147, 566.148, 566.149, 566.150, 566.151, 566.153, 566.155, 566.203, 566.206, 566.209, 566.210, 566.211, 566.215, 566.218, 566.224, 566.226, 567.010, 567.020, 567.030, 567.050, 567.060, 567.070, 567.080, 567.085, 567.087, 567.110, 567.120, 568.010, 568.020, 568.030, 568.032, 568.040, 568.045, 568.050, 568.060, 568.065, 568.070, 568.175, 569.010, 569.040, 569.050, 569.053, 569.055, 569.060, 569.065, 569.075, 569.080, 569.090, 569.095, 569.097, 569.099, 569.100, 569.120, 569.130, 569.132, 569.135, 569.137, 569.140, 569.145, 569.150, 569.155, 569.160, 569.170, 569.180, 570.010, 570.020, 570.023, 570.025, 570.030, 570.039, 570.053, 570.057, 570.070, 570.085, 570.090, 570.100, 570.103, 570.110, 570.120, 570.125, 570.130, 570.135, 570.140, 570.145, 570.150, 570.180, 570.217, 570.219, 570.220, 570.223, 570.224, 570.225, 570.300, 570.302, 570.310, 570.350, 570.375, 570.380, 570.400, 570.402, 570.404, 570.406, 570.408, 570.410, 571.010, 571.014, 571.015, 571.020, 571.031, 571.033, 571.034, 571.036, 571.038, 571.041, 571.042, 571.043, 571.044, 571.045, 571.050, 571.060, 571.063, 571.070, 571.150, 572.010, 572.015, 572.020, 572.030, 572.040, 572.050, 572.060, 572.070, 573.010, 573.020, 573.023, 573.025, 573.030, 573.035, 573.037, 573.040, 573.050, 573.052, 573.060, 573.065, 573.090, 573.100, 573.200, 573.205, 573.215, 573.509, 573.531, 574.005, 574.010, 574.020, 574.040, 574.050, 574.060, 574.070, 574.075, 574.080, 574.085, 574.105, 574.115, 574.120, 574.125, 574.130, 574.140, 574.150, 574.152, 575.020, 575.021, 575.030, 575.040, 575.050, 575.060, 575.070, 575.080, 575.090, 575.095, 575.100, 575.110, 575.120, 575.130, 575.145, 575.150, 575.153, 575.155, 575.157, 575.159, 575.160, 575.170, 575.180, 575.190, 575.195, 575.200, 575.205, 575.206, 575.210, 575.220, 575.230, 575.240, 575.250, 575.260, 575.270, 575.280, 575.290, 575.300, 575.310, 575.320, 575.353, 576.010, 576.020, 576.030, 576.040, 576.050, 576.060, 576.070, 576.080, 577.001, 577.010, 577.012, 577.013, 577.014, 577.015, 577.016, 577.017, 577.020, 577.021, 577.023, 577.029, 577.031, 577.037, 577.041, 577.060, 577.068, 577.070, 577.073, 577.075, 577.076, 577.078, 577.080, 577.100, 577.150, 577.155, 577.161, 577.300, 577.599, 577.600, 577.605, 577.612, 577.675, 577.700, 577.703, 577.706, 577.709, 577.712, 577.715, 577.718, 578.009, 578.012, 578.018, 578.021, 578.023, 578.024, 578.025, 578.027, 578.028, 578.029, 578.030, 578.095, 578.100, 578.151, 578.152, 578.153, 578.173, 578.176, 578.350, 578.365, 578.398, 578.399, 578.405, 578.421, 578.425, 578.430, 578.437, 578.475, 578.520, 578.525, 578.614, 579.015, 579.020, 579.030, 579.040, 579.045, 579.050, 579.055, 579.060, 579.065, 579.068, 579.070, 579.072, 579.074, 579.076, 579.078, 579.080, 579.082, 579.084, 579.086, 579.090, 579.095, 579.097, 579.099, 579.101, 579.103, 579.105, 579.107, 579.110, 579.115, 579.150, 579.155, 579.170, 579.175, 579.180, 579.185, 589.015, 589.425, 590.700, 595.223, 595.226, 595.229, 595.232, 610.125, 610.130, 630.155, 630.161, 630.162, 630.164, 630.165, 632.480, 650.150, 650.153, 650.156, 650.159, 650.161, 650.165, and 701.320, to read as follows:

            [572.110.] 27.105. [It shall be the duty of the circuit attorneys and prosecuting attorneys in their respective jurisdictions to enforce the provisions of this chapter, and] The attorney general shall have a concurrent duty to enforce the provisions of [this] chapter 572.

            [578.390.] 27.110. The office of the attorney general shall establish and maintain a statewide toll-free telephone service which shall be operated on a sixteen-hour schedule during the work week and an eight-hour schedule on weekends and holidays to receive complaints of [a] suspected welfare fraud. This service shall receive reports over a single statewide toll-free number.

            32.057. 1. Except as otherwise specifically provided by law, it shall be unlawful for the director of revenue, any officer, employee, agent or deputy or former director, officer, employee, agent or deputy of the department of revenue, any person engaged or retained by the department of revenue on an independent contract basis, any person to whom authorized or unauthorized disclosure is made by the department of revenue, or any person who lawfully or unlawfully inspects any report or return filed with the department of revenue or to whom a copy, an abstract or a portion of any report or return is furnished by the department of revenue to make known in any manner, to permit the inspection or use of or to divulge to anyone any information relative to any such report or return, any information obtained by an investigation conducted by the department in the discharge of official duty, or any information received by the director in cooperation with the United States or other states in the enforcement of the revenue laws of this state. Such confidential information is limited to information received by the department in connection with the administration of the tax laws of this state.

            2. Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit:

            (1) The disclosure of information, returns, reports, or facts shown thereby, as described in subsection 1 of this section, by any officer, clerk or other employee of the department of revenue charged with the custody of such information:

            (a) To a taxpayer or the taxpayer's duly authorized representative under regulations which the director of revenue may prescribe;

            (b) In any action or proceeding, civil, criminal or mixed, brought to enforce the revenue laws of this state;

            (c) To the state auditor or the auditor's duly authorized employees as required by subsection 4 of this section;

            (d) To any city officer designated by ordinance of a city within this state to collect a city earnings tax, upon written request of such officer, which request states that the request is made for the purpose of determining or enforcing compliance with such city earnings tax ordinance and provided that such information disclosed shall be limited to that sufficient to identify the taxpayer, and further provided that in no event shall any information be disclosed that will result in the department of revenue being denied such information by the United States or any other state. The city officer requesting the identity of taxpayers filing state returns but not paying city earnings tax shall furnish to the director of revenue a list of taxpayers paying such earnings tax, and the director shall compare the list submitted with the director's records and return to such city official the name and address of any taxpayer who is a resident of such city who has filed a state tax return but who does not appear on the list furnished by such city. The director of revenue may set a fee to reimburse the department for the costs reasonably incurred in providing this information;

            (e) To any employee of any county or other political subdivision imposing a sales tax which is administered by the state department of revenue whose office is authorized by the governing body of the county or other political subdivision to receive any and all records of the state director of revenue pertaining to the administration, collection and enforcement of its sales tax. The request for sales tax records and reports shall include a description of the type of report requested, the media form including electronic transfer, computer tape or disk, or printed form, and the frequency desired. The request shall be made by annual written application and shall be filed with the director of revenue. The director of revenue may set a fee to reimburse the department for the costs reasonably incurred in providing this information. Such city or county or any employee thereof shall be subject to the same standards for confidentiality as required for the department of revenue in using the information contained in the reports;

            (f) To the director of the department of economic development or the director's duly authorized employees in discharging the director's official duties to certify taxpayers eligibility to claim state tax credits as prescribed by statutes;

            (g) To any employee of any political subdivision, such records of the director of revenue pertaining to the administration, collection and enforcement of the tax imposed in chapter 149 as are necessary for ensuring compliance with any cigarette or tobacco tax imposed by such political subdivision. The request for such records shall be made in writing to the director of revenue, and shall include a description of the type of information requested and the desired frequency. The director of revenue may charge a fee to reimburse the department for costs reasonably incurred in providing such information;

            (2) The publication by the director of revenue or of the state auditor in the audit reports relating to the department of revenue of:

            (a) Statistics, statements or explanations so classified as to prevent the identification of any taxpayer or of any particular reports or returns and the items thereof;

            (b) The names and addresses without any additional information of persons who filed returns and of persons whose tax refund checks have been returned undelivered by the United States Post Office;

            (3) The director of revenue from permitting the Secretary of the Treasury of the United States or the Secretary's delegates, the proper officer of any state of the United States imposing a tax equivalent to any of the taxes administered by the department of revenue of the state of Missouri or the appropriate representative of the multistate tax commission to inspect any return or report required by the respective tax provision of this state, or may furnish to such officer an abstract of the return or report or supply the officer with information contained in the return or disclosed by the report of any authorized investigation. Such permission, however, shall be granted on condition that the corresponding revenue statute of the United States or of such other state, as the case may be, grants substantially similar privileges to the director of revenue and on further condition that such corresponding statute gives confidential status to the material with which it is concerned;

            (4) The disclosure of information, returns, reports, or facts shown thereby, by any person on behalf of the director of revenue, in any action or proceeding to which the director is a party or on behalf of any party to any action or proceeding pursuant to the revenue laws of this state when such information is directly involved in the action or proceeding, in either of which events the court may require the production of, and may admit in evidence, so much of such information as is pertinent to the action or proceeding and no more;

            (5) The disclosure of information, returns, reports, or facts shown thereby, by any person to a state or federal prosecuting official, including, but not limited to, the state and federal attorneys general, or the official's designees involved in any criminal, quasi-criminal, or civil investigation, action or proceeding pursuant to the laws of this state or of the United States when such information is pertinent to an investigation, action or proceeding involving the administration of the revenue laws or duties of public office or employment connected therewith;

            (6) Any school district from obtaining the aggregate amount of the financial institution tax paid pursuant to chapter 148 by financial institutions located partially or exclusively within the school district's boundaries, provided that the school district request such disclosure in writing to the department of revenue;

            (7) The disclosure of records which identify all companies licensed by this state pursuant to the provisions of subsections 1 and 2 of section 149.035. The director of revenue may charge a fee to reimburse the department for the costs reasonably incurred in providing such records;

            (8) The disclosure to the commissioner of administration pursuant to section 34.040 of a list of vendors and their affiliates who meet the conditions of section 144.635, but refuse to collect the use tax levied pursuant to chapter 144 on their sales delivered to this state;

            (9) The disclosure to the public of any information, or facts shown thereby regarding the claiming of a state tax credit by a member of the Missouri general assembly or any statewide elected public official.

            3. Any person violating any provision of subsection 1 or 2 of this section shall, upon conviction, be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            4. The state auditor or the auditor's duly authorized employees who have taken the oath of confidentiality required by section 29.070 shall have the right to inspect any report or return filed with the department of revenue if such inspection is related to and for the purpose of auditing the department of revenue; except that, the state auditor or the auditor's duly authorized employees shall have no greater right of access to, use and publication of information, audit and related activities with respect to income tax information obtained by the department of revenue pursuant to chapter 143 or federal statute than specifically exists pursuant to the laws of the United States and of the income tax laws of the state of Missouri.

            [577.005.] 43.544. 1. Each law enforcement agency shall adopt a policy requiring arrest information for all intoxication-related traffic offenses be forwarded to the central repository as required by section 43.503 and shall certify adoption of such policy when applying for any grants administered by the department of public safety.

            2. Each county prosecuting attorney and municipal prosecutor shall adopt a policy requiring charge information for all intoxication-related traffic offenses be forwarded to the central repository as required by section 43.503 and shall certify adoption of such policy when applying for any grants administered by the department of public safety.

            3. Effective January 1, 2011, the highway patrol shall, based on the data submitted, maintain regular accountability reports of intoxication-related traffic offense arrests, charges, and dispositions.

            105.478. Any person guilty of knowingly violating any of the provisions of sections 105.450 to 105.498 shall be punished as follows:

            (1) For the first offense, such person is guilty of a class B misdemeanor;

            (2) For the second and subsequent offenses, such person is guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            115.631. The following offenses, and any others specifically so described by law, shall be class one election offenses and are deemed felonies connected with the exercise of the right of suffrage. Conviction for any of these offenses shall be punished by imprisonment of not more than five years or by fine of not less than two thousand five hundred dollars but not more than ten thousand dollars or by both such imprisonment and fine:

            (1) Willfully and falsely making any certificate, affidavit, or statement required to be made pursuant to any provision of sections 115.001 to 115.641 and sections 51.450 and 51.460, including but not limited to statements specifically required to be made "under penalty of perjury"; or in any other manner knowingly furnishing false information to an election authority or election official engaged in any lawful duty or action in such a way as to hinder or mislead the authority or official in the performance of official duties. If an individual willfully and falsely makes any certificate, affidavit, or statement required to be made under section 115.155, including but not limited to statements specifically required to be made "under penalty of perjury", such individual shall be guilty of a class [C] D felony;

            (2) Voting more than once or voting at any election knowing that the person is not entitled to vote or that the person has already voted on the same day at another location inside or outside the state of Missouri;

            (3) Procuring any person to vote knowing the person is not lawfully entitled to vote or knowingly procuring an illegal vote to be cast at any election;

            (4) Applying for a ballot in the name of any other person, whether the name be that of a person living or dead or of a fictitious person, or applying for a ballot in his own or any other name after having once voted at the election inside or outside the state of Missouri;

            (5) Aiding, abetting or advising another person to vote knowing the person is not legally entitled to vote or knowingly aiding, abetting or advising another person to cast an illegal vote;

            (6) An election judge knowingly causing or permitting any ballot to be in the ballot box at the opening of the polls and before the voting commences;

            (7) Knowingly furnishing any voter with a false or fraudulent or bogus ballot, or knowingly practicing any fraud upon a voter to induce him to cast a vote which will be rejected, or otherwise defrauding him of his vote;

            (8) An election judge knowingly placing or attempting to place or permitting any ballot, or paper having the semblance of a ballot, to be placed in a ballot box at any election unless the ballot is offered by a qualified voter as provided by law;

            (9) Knowingly placing or attempting to place or causing to be placed any false or fraudulent or bogus ballot in a ballot box at any election;

            (10) Knowingly removing any legal ballot from a ballot box for the purpose of changing the true and lawful count of any election or in any other manner knowingly changing the true and lawful count of any election;

            (11) Knowingly altering, defacing, damaging, destroying or concealing any ballot after it has been voted for the purpose of changing the lawful count of any election;

            (12) Knowingly altering, defacing, damaging, destroying or concealing any poll list, report, affidavit, return or certificate for the purpose of changing the lawful count of any election;

            (13) On the part of any person authorized to receive, tally or count a poll list, tally sheet or election return, receiving, tallying or counting a poll list, tally sheet or election return the person knows is fraudulent, forged or counterfeit, or knowingly making an incorrect account of any election;

            (14) On the part of any person whose duty it is to grant certificates of election, or in any manner declare the result of an election, granting a certificate to a person the person knows is not entitled to receive the certificate, or declaring any election result the person knows is based upon fraudulent, fictitious or illegal votes or returns;

            (15) Willfully destroying or damaging any official ballots, whether marked or unmarked, after the ballots have been prepared for use at an election and during the time they are required by law to be preserved in the custody of the election judges or the election authority;

            (16) Willfully tampering with, disarranging, altering the information on, defacing, impairing or destroying any voting machine or marking device after the machine or marking device has been prepared for use at an election and during the time it is required by law to remain locked and sealed with intent to impair the functioning of the machine or marking device at an election, mislead any voter at the election, or to destroy or change the count or record of votes on such machine;

            (17) Registering to vote knowing the person is not legally entitled to register or registering in the name of another person, whether the name be that of a person living or dead or of a fictitious person;

            (18) Procuring any other person to register knowing the person is not legally entitled to register, or aiding, abetting or advising another person to register knowing the person is not legally entitled to register;

            (19) Knowingly preparing, altering or substituting any computer program or other counting equipment to give an untrue or unlawful result of an election;

            (20) On the part of any person assisting a blind or disabled person to vote, knowingly failing to cast such person's vote as such person directs;

            (21) On the part of any registration or election official, permitting any person to register to vote or to vote when such official knows the person is not legally entitled to register or not legally entitled to vote;

            (22) On the part of a notary public acting in his official capacity, knowingly violating any of the provisions of sections 115.001 to 115.627 or any provision of law pertaining to elections;

            (23) Violation of any of the provisions of sections 115.275 to 115.303, or of any provision of law pertaining to absentee voting;

            (24) Assisting a person to vote knowing such person is not legally entitled to such assistance, or while assisting a person to vote who is legally entitled to such assistance, in any manner coercing, requesting or suggesting that the voter vote for or against, or refrain from voting on any question, ticket or candidate;

            (25) Engaging in any act of violence, destruction of property having a value of five hundred dollars or more, or threatening an act of violence with the intent of denying a person's lawful right to vote or to participate in the election process; and

            (26) Knowingly providing false information about election procedures for the purpose of preventing any person from going to the polls.

            130.028. 1. Every person, labor organization, or corporation organized or existing by virtue of the laws of this state, or doing business in this state who shall:

            (1) Discriminate or threaten to discriminate against any member in this state with respect to his or her membership, or discharge or discriminate or threaten to discriminate against any employee in this state, with respect to his or her compensation, terms, conditions or privileges of employment by reason of his political beliefs or opinions; or

            (2) Coerce or attempt to coerce, intimidate or bribe any member or employee to vote or refrain from voting for any candidate at any election in this state; or

            (3) Coerce or attempt to coerce, intimidate or bribe any member or employee to vote or refrain from voting for any issue at any election in this state; or

            (4) Make any member or employee as a condition of membership or employment, contribute to any candidate, political committee or separate political fund; or

            (5) Discriminate or threaten to discriminate against any member or employee in this state for contributing or refusing to contribute to any candidate, political committee or separate political fund with respect to the privileges of membership or with respect to his employment and the compensation, terms, conditions or privileges related thereto shall be guilty of a misdemeanor, and upon conviction thereof be punished by a fine of not more than five thousand dollars and confinement for not more than six months, or both, provided, after January 1, 1979, the violation of this subsection shall be a class [D] E felony.

            2. No employer, corporation, political action committee, or labor organization shall receive or cause to be made contributions from its members or employees except on the advance voluntary permission of the members or employees. Violation of this section by the corporation, employer, political action committee or labor organization shall be a class A misdemeanor.

            3. An employer shall, upon written request by ten or more employees, provide its employees with the option of contributing to a political action committee as defined in section 130.011 through payroll deduction, if the employer has a system of payroll deduction. No contribution to a political action committee from an employee through payroll deduction shall be made other than to a political action committee voluntarily chosen by the employee. Violation of this section shall be a class A misdemeanor.

            4. Any person aggrieved by any act prohibited by this section shall, in addition to any other remedy provided by law, be entitled to maintain within one year from the date of the prohibited act, a civil action in the courts of this state, and if successful, he or she shall be awarded civil damages of not less than one hundred dollars and not more than one thousand dollars, together with his or her costs, including reasonable attorney's fees. Each violation shall be a separate cause of action.

            130.031. 1. No contribution of cash in an amount of more than one hundred dollars shall be made by or accepted from any single contributor for any election by a political action committee, a campaign committee, a political party committee, an exploratory committee or a candidate committee.

            2. Except for expenditures from a petty cash fund which is established and maintained by withdrawals of funds from the committee's depository account and with records maintained pursuant to the record-keeping requirements of section 130.036 to account for expenditures made from petty cash, each expenditure of more than fifty dollars, except an in-kind expenditure, shall be made by check drawn on the committee's depository and signed by the committee treasurer, deputy treasurer or candidate. A single expenditure from a petty cash fund shall not exceed fifty dollars, and the aggregate of all expenditures from a petty cash fund during a calendar year shall not exceed the lesser of five thousand dollars or ten percent of all expenditures made by the committee during that calendar year. A check made payable to "cash" shall not be made except to replenish a petty cash fund.

            3. No contribution shall be made or accepted and no expenditure shall be made or incurred, directly or indirectly, in a fictitious name, in the name of another person, or by or through another person in such a manner as to conceal the identity of the actual source of the contribution or the actual recipient and purpose of the expenditure. Any person who receives contributions for a committee shall disclose to that committee's treasurer, deputy treasurer or candidate the recipient's own name and address and the name and address of the actual source of each contribution such person has received for that committee. Any person who makes expenditures for a committee shall disclose to that committee's treasurer, deputy treasurer or candidate such person's own name and address, the name and address of each person to whom an expenditure has been made and the amount and purpose of the expenditures the person has made for that committee.

            4. No anonymous contribution of more than twenty-five dollars shall be made by any person, and no anonymous contribution of more than twenty-five dollars shall be accepted by any candidate or committee. If any anonymous contribution of more than twenty-five dollars is received, it shall be returned immediately to the contributor, if the contributor's identity can be ascertained, and if the contributor's identity cannot be ascertained, the candidate, committee treasurer or deputy treasurer shall immediately transmit that portion of the contribution which exceeds twenty-five dollars to the state treasurer and it shall escheat to the state.

            5. The maximum aggregate amount of anonymous contributions which shall be accepted in any calendar year by any committee shall be the greater of five hundred dollars or one percent of the aggregate amount of all contributions received by that committee in the same calendar year. If any anonymous contribution is received which causes the aggregate total of anonymous contributions to exceed the foregoing limitation, it shall be returned immediately to the contributor, if the contributor's identity can be ascertained, and, if the contributor's identity cannot be ascertained, the committee treasurer, deputy treasurer or candidate shall immediately transmit the anonymous contribution to the state treasurer to escheat to the state.

            6. Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection 5 of this section, contributions from individuals whose names and addresses cannot be ascertained which are received from a fund-raising activity or event, such as defined in section 130.011, shall not be deemed anonymous contributions, provided the following conditions are met:

            (1) There are twenty-five or more contributing participants in the activity or event;

            (2) The candidate, committee treasurer, deputy treasurer or the person responsible for conducting the activity or event makes an announcement that it is illegal for anyone to make or receive a contribution in excess of one hundred dollars unless the contribution is accompanied by the name and address of the contributor;

            (3) The person responsible for conducting the activity or event does not knowingly accept payment from any single person of more than one hundred dollars unless the name and address of the person making such payment is obtained and recorded pursuant to the record-keeping requirements of section 130.036;

            (4) A statement describing the event shall be prepared by the candidate or the treasurer of the committee for whom the funds were raised or by the person responsible for conducting the activity or event and attached to the disclosure report of contributions and expenditures required by section 130.041. The following information to be listed in the statement is in addition to, not in lieu of, the requirements elsewhere in this chapter relating to the recording and reporting of contributions and expenditures:

            (a) The name and mailing address of the person or persons responsible for conducting the event or activity and the name and address of the candidate or committee for whom the funds were raised;

            (b) The date on which the event occurred;

            (c) The name and address of the location where the event occurred and the approximate number of participants in the event;

            (d) A brief description of the type of event and the fund-raising methods used;

            (e) The gross receipts from the event and a listing of the expenditures incident to the event;

            (f) The total dollar amount of contributions received from the event from participants whose names and addresses were not obtained with such contributions and an explanation of why it was not possible to obtain the names and addresses of such participants;

            (g) The total dollar amount of contributions received from contributing participants in the event who are identified by name and address in the records required to be maintained pursuant to section 130.036.

            7. No candidate or committee in this state shall accept contributions from any out-of-state committee unless the out-of-state committee from whom the contributions are received has filed a statement of organization pursuant to section 130.021 or has filed the reports required by sections 130.049 and 130.050, whichever is applicable to that committee.

            8. Any person publishing, circulating, or distributing any printed matter relative to any candidate for public office or any ballot measure shall on the face of the printed matter identify in a clear and conspicuous manner the person who paid for the printed matter with the words "Paid for by" followed by the proper identification of the sponsor pursuant to this section. For the purposes of this section, "printed matter" shall be defined to include any pamphlet, circular, handbill, sample ballot, advertisement, including advertisements in any newspaper or other periodical, sign, including signs for display on motor vehicles, or other imprinted or lettered material; but "printed matter" is defined to exclude materials printed and purchased prior to May 20, 1982, if the candidate or committee can document that delivery took place prior to May 20, 1982; any sign personally printed and constructed by an individual without compensation from any other person and displayed at that individual's place of residence or on that individual's personal motor vehicle; any items of personal use given away or sold, such as campaign buttons, pins, pens, pencils, book matches, campaign jewelry, or clothing, which is paid for by a candidate or committee which supports a candidate or supports or opposes a ballot measure and which is obvious in its identification with a specific candidate or committee and is reported as required by this chapter; and any news story, commentary, or editorial printed by a regularly published newspaper or other periodical without charge to a candidate, committee or any other person.

            (1) In regard to any printed matter paid for by a candidate from the candidate's personal funds, it shall be sufficient identification to print the first and last name by which the candidate is known.

            (2) In regard to any printed matter paid for by a committee, it shall be sufficient identification to print the name of the committee as required to be registered by subsection 5 of section 130.021 and the name and title of the committee treasurer who was serving when the printed matter was paid for.

            (3) In regard to any printed matter paid for by a corporation or other business entity, labor organization, or any other organization not defined to be a committee by subdivision (9) of section 130.011 and not organized especially for influencing one or more elections, it shall be sufficient identification to print the name of the entity, the name of the principal officer of the entity, by whatever title known, and the mailing address of the entity, or if the entity has no mailing address, the mailing address of the principal officer.

            (4) In regard to any printed matter paid for by an individual or individuals, it shall be sufficient identification to print the name of the individual or individuals and the respective mailing address or addresses, except that if more than five individuals join in paying for printed matter it shall be sufficient identification to print the words "For a list of other sponsors contact:" followed by the name and address of one such individual responsible for causing the matter to be printed, and the individual identified shall maintain a record of the names and amounts paid by other individuals and shall make such record available for review upon the request of any person. No person shall accept for publication or printing nor shall such work be completed until the printed matter is properly identified as required by this subsection.

            9. Any broadcast station transmitting any matter relative to any candidate for public office or ballot measure as defined by this chapter shall identify the sponsor of such matter as required by federal law.

            10. The provisions of subsection 8 or 9 of this section shall not apply to candidates for elective federal office, provided that persons causing matter to be printed or broadcast concerning such candidacies shall comply with the requirements of federal law for identification of the sponsor or sponsors.

            11. It shall be a violation of this chapter for any person required to be identified as paying for printed matter pursuant to subsection 8 of this section or paying for broadcast matter pursuant to subsection 9 of this section to refuse to provide the information required or to purposely provide false, misleading, or incomplete information.

            12. It shall be a violation of this chapter for any committee to offer chances to win prizes or money to persons to encourage such persons to endorse, send election material by mail, deliver election material in person or contact persons at their homes; except that, the provisions of this subsection shall not be construed to prohibit hiring and paying a campaign staff.

            13. Political action committees shall only receive contributions from individuals; unions; federal political action committees; and corporations, associations, and partnerships formed under chapters 347 to 360, and shall be prohibited from receiving contributions from other political action committees, candidate committees, political party committees, campaign committees, exploratory committees, or debt service committees. However, candidate committees, political party committees, campaign committees, exploratory committees, and debt service committees shall be allowed to return contributions to a donor political action committee that is the origin of the contribution.

            14. The prohibited committee transfers described in subsection 13 of this section shall not apply to the following committees:

            (1) The state house committee per political party designated by the respective majority or minority floor leader of the house of representatives or the chair of the state party if the party does not have majority or minority party status;

            (2) The state senate committee per political party designated by the respective majority or minority floor leader of the senate or the chair of the state party if the party does not have majority or minority party status.

            15. No person shall transfer anything of value to any committee with the intent to conceal, from the ethics commission, the identity of the actual source. Any violation of this subsection shall be punishable as follows:

            (1) For the first violation, the ethics commission shall notify such person that the transfer to the committee is prohibited under this section within five days of determining that the transfer is prohibited, and that such person shall notify the committee to which the funds were transferred that the funds must be returned within ten days of such notification;

            (2) For the second violation, the person transferring the funds shall be guilty of a class C misdemeanor;

            (3) For the third and subsequent violations, the person transferring the funds shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            16. Beginning January 1, 2011, all committees required to file campaign financial disclosure reports with the Missouri ethics commission shall file any required disclosure report in an electronic format as prescribed by the ethics commission.

            142.909. A person who violates any provision of this chapter, including, but not limited to the failure to obtain required licenses or permits, or fails to keep records as prescribed herein, or neglects, fails or refuses to allow the director, the director's authorized agents or the Missouri highway patrol to inspect an item of equipment or records, or who fails, neglects or refuses to pay the tax due is guilty of a misdemeanor and may be punished as prescribed by law. Any person who violates any of the provisions of this section with the purpose to defraud is guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            142.911. 1. Each person operating a refinery, terminal, or bulk plant in this state shall prepare and provide to the driver of every fuel transportation vehicle receiving motor fuel into the vehicle storage tank at the facility a shipping document setting out on its face:

            (1) Identification by city and state of the terminal, refinery or bulk plant from which the motor fuel was removed;

            (2) The date the motor fuel was removed;

            (3) The amount of motor fuel removed, gross gallons and net gallons;

            (4) The state of destination as represented to the terminal operator by the transporter, the shipper or the agent of the shipper;

            (5) Any other information required by the director for the enforcement of this chapter; and

            (6) The supplier, consignee and carrier of the motor fuel.

            2. A terminal operator may manually prepare shipping papers if the terminal does not have the ability to prepare automated shipping papers or as a result of extraordinary unforeseen circumstances, including acts of God, which temporarily interfere with the ability of the terminal operator to issue automated machine-generated shipping papers. However, the terminal operator shall, prior to manually preparing the papers, provide, in the case of a terminal not having the ability to prepare automated shipping papers, written notice to the director, or in the case of extraordinary circumstances, telephonic notice to the director and obtain a service interruption authorization number which the employees of the terminal operator shall add to the manually prepared papers prior to removal of each affected transport load from the terminal. The service interruption authorization number shall be valid for use by the terminal operator for a period not to exceed twenty-four hours. If the interruption has not been corrected within the twenty-four-hour period, additional [notice(s)] notice or notices to the director shall be required and interruption authorization [number(s)] number or numbers may be issued upon explanation by the terminal operator satisfactory to the director. If the terminal operator acquires the ability to prepare automated machine-printed shipping papers, the terminal operator shall notify the director no later than ten days prior to the initial use of such capability.

            3. An operator of a bulk plant in this state delivering motor fuel into a tank wagon for subsequent delivery to a consumer in this state shall be exempt from this section. An operator of a bulk plant in this state shall not be required to identify net gallons on the shipping documents as provided by this section.

            4. A refinery or terminal operator may load motor fuel, a portion of which fuel is destined for sale or use in this state and a portion of which fuel is destined for sale or use in another state or states. However, such split loads removed shall be documented by the terminal operator by issuing shipping papers designating the state of destination for each portion of the fuel.

            5. Each refinery or terminal operator shall post a conspicuous notice proximately located to the point of receipt of shipping papers by transport truck operators, which notice shall describe in clear and concise terms the duties of the transport operator and supplier under section 142.914, provided that the director may establish the language, type, style and format of the notice.

            6. No terminal operator shall imprint, and no supplier shall knowingly permit a terminal operator to imprint on behalf of the supplier, any false statement on a shipping paper relating to motor fuel to be delivered to this state or to a state having substantially the same shipping paper requirements with respect to the supplier of the fuel, whether or not it was dyed for the intended destination.

            7. Any terminal operator who shall knowingly imprint any false statement in violation of this section shall be jointly and severally liable for all the taxes levied by this chapter which are not collected by this state as a result of such action.

            8. Any supplier who knowingly violates this section shall be jointly and severally liable with the terminal operator.

            9. A person who knowingly violates or knowingly aids and abets another to violate this section with the intent to evade the tax levied by this chapter shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            10. The director may impose a civil penalty of one thousand dollars for the first occurrence against every terminal operator that fails to meet shipping paper issuance requirements under this chapter. Each subsequent occurrence described in this subsection is subject to a civil penalty of five thousand dollars.

            143.1001. 1. In each tax year beginning on or after January 1, 1990, each individual or corporation entitled to a tax refund in an amount sufficient to make a designation under this section may designate that two dollars or any amount in excess of two dollars on a single return, and four dollars or any amount in excess of four dollars on a combined return, of the refund due be credited to the veterans' trust fund. The contribution designation authorized by this section shall be clearly and unambiguously printed on each income tax return form provided by this state. If any individual or corporation which is not entitled to a tax refund in an amount sufficient to make a designation under this section wishes to make a contribution to the veterans' trust fund, such individual or corporation may, by separate check, draft, or other negotiable instrument, send in with the payment of taxes, or may send in separately, that amount, clearly designated for the veterans' trust fund, the individual or corporation wishes to contribute and the department of revenue shall forward such amount to the state treasurer for deposit to the veterans' trust fund as provided in subsection 2 of this section.

            2. The director of revenue shall transfer at least monthly all contributions designated by individuals under this section to the state treasurer for deposit to the veterans' trust fund.

            3. The director of revenue shall transfer at least monthly all contributions designated by corporations under this section, less an amount sufficient to cover the cost of collection and handling by the department of revenue, to the state treasurer for deposit to the veterans' trust fund.

            4. A contribution designated under this section shall only be transferred and deposited in the veterans' trust fund after all other claims against the refund from which such contribution is to be made have been satisfied.

            5. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the names and addresses of individuals or corporations who designate a contribution to this fund may be supplied to the veterans' commission, for the purpose of sending an acknowledgment and written appreciation to those individuals and corporations. Under no circumstances shall the names and addresses be used for any purpose other than that expressed in this subsection. Release or use of the names and addresses for any other purpose is a class [C] D felony.

            143.1003. 1. In each tax year beginning on or after January 1, 1999, each individual or corporation entitled to a tax refund in an amount sufficient to make a designation pursuant to this section may designate that two dollars or any amount in excess of two dollars on a single return and four dollars or any amount in excess of four dollars on a combined return, of the refund due be credited to the Missouri national guard trust fund. The contribution designation authorized by this section shall be clearly and unambiguously printed on each income tax return form provided by this state. If any individual or corporation which is not entitled to a tax refund in an amount sufficient to make a designation pursuant to this section wishes to make a contribution to the Missouri national guard trust fund, such individual or corporation may, by separate check, draft or other negotiable instrument, send in with the payment of taxes, or may send in separately, that amount, clearly designated for the Missouri national guard trust fund, the individual or corporation wishes to contribute and the department of revenue shall forward such amount to the state treasurer for deposit to the Missouri national guard trust fund as provided in subsection 2 of this section.

            2. The director of revenue shall transfer at least monthly all contributions designated by individuals pursuant to this section to the state treasurer for deposit in the Missouri national guard trust fund.

            3. A contribution designated pursuant to this section shall only be transferred and deposited in the Missouri national guard trust fund after all other claims against the refund from which such contribution is to be made have been satisfied.

            4. Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the names and addresses of individuals or corporations who designate a contribution to this fund may be supplied to the office of the adjutant general, for the purpose of sending an acknowledgment and written appreciation to those individuals and corporations. Under no circumstances shall the names and addresses be used for any purpose other than that expressed in this subsection. Any person who releases or uses any of the names and addresses for any other purpose is guilty of a class [C] D felony.

            5. Moneys to be credited to the Missouri national guard trust fund pursuant to subsection 1 of this section shall be placed in a subaccount and shall be used solely for the purpose authorized in section 41.958.

            149.200. 1. It is unlawful for any person to:

            (1) Sell or distribute in this state, to acquire, hold, own, possess or transport for sale or distribution in this state, or to import, or cause to be imported into this state for sale or distribution in this state, any cigarettes that do not comply with all requirements imposed by or pursuant to federal law and implementing regulations, including but not limited to the filing of ingredients lists pursuant to Section 7 of the Federal Cigarette Labeling and Advertising Act (15 U.S.C. 1335a); the permanent imprinting on the primary packaging of the precise package warning labels in the precise format specified in Section 4 of the Federal Cigarette Labeling and Advertising Act (15 U.S.C. 1333); the rotation of label statements pursuant to Section 4(c) of the Federal Cigarette Labeling and Advertising Act (15 U.S.C. 1335(c)); restrictions on the importation, transfer and sale of previously exported tobacco products pursuant to Section 9302 of Public Law 105-33, the Balanced Budget Act of 1997, as amended; requirements of Title IV of Public Law 106-476, the Imported Cigarette Compliance Act of 2000; or

            (2) Alter the package of any cigarettes, prior to sale or distribution to the ultimate consumer, so as to remove, conceal or obscure:

            (a) Any statement, label, stamp, sticker or notice indicating that the manufacturer did not intend the cigarettes to be sold, distributed or used in the United States, including but not limited to labels stating "For Export Only", "U.S. Tax Exempt", "For Use Outside U.S.", or similar wording; or

            (b) Any health warning that is not the precise warning statement in the precise format specified in Section 4 of the Federal Cigarette Labeling and Advertising Act (15 U.S.C. 1333).

            2. It shall be unlawful for any person to affix any tax stamp or meter impression required pursuant to this chapter to the package of any cigarettes that does not comply with the requirements of subdivision (1) of subsection 1 of this section or that is altered in violation of subdivision (2) of subsection 1 of this section.

            3. This section shall not apply to cigarettes allowed to be imported or brought into the United States for personal use, or to cigarettes sold or intended to be sold as duty-free merchandise by a duty-free sales enterprise in accordance with the provisions of 19 U.S.C. 1555(b) and any implementing regulations; provided, however, that sections 149.200 to 149.215 shall apply to any such cigarettes that are brought back into the customs territory for resale within the customs territory.

            4. Any person who violates this section, whether acting knowingly or recklessly, is guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            5. As used in this section, "package" means a pack, box, carton or container of any kind in which cigarettes are offered for sale, sold or otherwise distributed to consumers.

            160.261. 1. The local board of education of each school district shall clearly establish a written policy of discipline, including the district's determination on the use of corporal punishment and the procedures in which punishment will be applied. A written copy of the district's discipline policy and corporal punishment procedures, if applicable, shall be provided to the pupil and parent or legal guardian of every pupil enrolled in the district at the beginning of each school year and also made available in the office of the superintendent of such district, during normal business hours, for public inspection. All employees of the district shall annually receive instruction related to the specific contents of the policy of discipline and any interpretations necessary to implement the provisions of the policy in the course of their duties, including but not limited to approved methods of dealing with acts of school violence, disciplining students with disabilities and instruction in the necessity and requirements for confidentiality.

            2. The policy shall require school administrators to report acts of school violence to all teachers at the attendance center and, in addition, to other school district employees with a need to know. For the purposes of this chapter or chapter 167, "need to know" is defined as school personnel who are directly responsible for the student's education or who otherwise interact with the student on a professional basis while acting within the scope of their assigned duties. As used in this section, the phrase "act of school violence" or "violent behavior" means the exertion of physical force by a student with the intent to do serious physical injury as defined in subdivision (6) of section 565.002 to another person while on school property, including a school bus in service on behalf of the district, or while involved in school activities. The policy shall at a minimum require school administrators to report, as soon as reasonably practical, to the appropriate law enforcement agency any of the following crimes, or any act which if committed by an adult would be one of the following crimes:

            (1) First degree murder under section 565.020;

            (2) Second degree murder under section 565.021;

            (3) Kidnapping under section 565.110;

            (4) First degree assault under section 565.050;

            (5) [Forcible] Rape in the first degree under section 566.030;

            (6) [Forcible] Sodomy in the first degree under section 566.060;

            (7) Burglary in the first degree under section 569.160;

            (8) Burglary in the second degree under section 569.170;

            (9) Robbery in the first degree under section 569.020;

            (10) Distribution of drugs under section 195.211;

            (11) Distribution of drugs to a minor under section 195.212;

            (12) Arson in the first degree under section 569.040;

            (13) Voluntary manslaughter under section 565.023;

            (14) Involuntary manslaughter under section 565.024;

            (15) Second degree assault under section 565.060;

            (16) [Sexual assault] Rape in the second degree under section [566.040] 566.031;

            (17) Felonious restraint under section 565.120;

            (18) Property damage in the first degree under section 569.100;

            (19) The possession of a weapon under chapter 571;

            (20) Child molestation in the first degree pursuant to section 566.067;

            (21) [Deviate sexual assault] Sodomy in the second degree pursuant to section [566.070] 566.061;

            (22) Sexual misconduct involving a child pursuant to section 566.083;

            (23) Sexual abuse in the first degree pursuant to section 566.100;

            (24) Harassment under section 565.090; or

            (25) Stalking under section 565.225; committed on school property, including but not limited to actions on any school bus in service on behalf of the district or while involved in school activities. The policy shall require that any portion of a student's individualized education program that is related to demonstrated or potentially violent behavior shall be provided to any teacher and other school district employees who are directly responsible for the student's education or who otherwise interact with the student on an educational basis while acting within the scope of their assigned duties. The policy shall also contain the consequences of failure to obey standards of conduct set by the local board of education, and the importance of the standards to the maintenance of an atmosphere where orderly learning is possible and encouraged.

            3. The policy shall provide that any student who is on suspension for any of the offenses listed in subsection 2 of this section or any act of violence or drug-related activity defined by school district policy as a serious violation of school discipline pursuant to subsection 9 of this section shall have as a condition of his or her suspension the requirement that such student is not allowed, while on such suspension, to be within one thousand feet of any school property in the school district where such student attended school or any activity of that district, regardless of whether or not the activity takes place on district property unless:

            (1) Such student is under the direct supervision of the student's parent, legal guardian, or custodian and the superintendent or the superintendent's designee has authorized the student to be on school property;

            (2) Such student is under the direct supervision of another adult designated by the student's parent, legal guardian, or custodian, in advance, in writing, to the principal of the school which suspended the student and the superintendent or the superintendent's designee has authorized the student to be on school property;

            (3) Such student is enrolled in and attending an alternative school that is located within one thousand feet of a public school in the school district where such student attended school; or

            (4) Such student resides within one thousand feet of any public school in the school district where such student attended school in which case such student may be on the property of his or her residence without direct adult supervision.

            4. Any student who violates the condition of suspension required pursuant to subsection 3 of this section may be subject to expulsion or further suspension pursuant to the provisions of sections 167.161, 167.164, and 167.171. In making this determination consideration shall be given to whether the student poses a threat to the safety of any child or school employee and whether such student's unsupervised presence within one thousand feet of the school is disruptive to the educational process or undermines the effectiveness of the school's disciplinary policy. Removal of any pupil who is a student with a disability is subject to state and federal procedural rights. This section shall not limit a school district's ability to:

            (1) Prohibit all students who are suspended from being on school property or attending an activity while on suspension;

            (2) Discipline students for off-campus conduct that negatively affects the educational environment to the extent allowed by law.

            5. The policy shall provide for a suspension for a period of not less than one year, or expulsion, for a student who is determined to have brought a weapon to school, including but not limited to the school playground or the school parking lot, brought a weapon on a school bus or brought a weapon to a school activity whether on or off of the school property in violation of district policy, except that:

            (1) The superintendent or, in a school district with no high school, the principal of the school which such child attends may modify such suspension on a case-by-case basis; and

            (2) This section shall not prevent the school district from providing educational services in an alternative setting to a student suspended under the provisions of this section.

            6. For the purpose of this section, the term "weapon" shall mean a firearm as defined under 18 U.S.C. 921 and the following items, as defined in section 571.010: a blackjack, a concealable firearm, an explosive weapon, a firearm, a firearm silencer, a gas gun, a knife, knuckles, a machine gun, a projectile weapon, a rifle, a shotgun, a spring gun or a switchblade knife; except that this section shall not be construed to prohibit a school board from adopting a policy to allow a Civil War reenactor to carry a Civil War era weapon on school property for educational purposes so long as the firearm is unloaded. The local board of education shall define weapon in the discipline policy. Such definition shall include the weapons defined in this subsection but may also include other weapons.

            7. All school district personnel responsible for the care and supervision of students are authorized to hold every pupil strictly accountable for any disorderly conduct in school or on any property of the school, on any school bus going to or returning from school, during school-sponsored activities, or during intermission or recess periods.

            8. Teachers and other authorized district personnel in public schools responsible for the care, supervision, and discipline of schoolchildren, including volunteers selected with reasonable care by the school district, shall not be civilly liable when acting in conformity with the established policies developed by each board, including but not limited to policies of student discipline or when reporting to his or her supervisor or other person as mandated by state law acts of school violence or threatened acts of school violence, within the course and scope of the duties of the teacher, authorized district personnel or volunteer, when such individual is acting in conformity with the established policies developed by the board. Nothing in this section shall be construed to create a new cause of action against such school district, or to relieve the school district from liability for the negligent acts of such persons.

            9. Each school board shall define in its discipline policy acts of violence and any other acts that constitute a serious violation of that policy. "Acts of violence" as defined by school boards shall include but not be limited to exertion of physical force by a student with the intent to do serious bodily harm to another person while on school property, including a school bus in service on behalf of the district, or while involved in school activities. School districts shall for each student enrolled in the school district compile and maintain records of any serious violation of the district's discipline policy. Such records shall be made available to teachers and other school district employees with a need to know while acting within the scope of their assigned duties, and shall be provided as required in section 167.020 to any school district in which the student subsequently attempts to enroll.

            10. Spanking, when administered by certificated personnel and in the presence of a witness who is an employee of the school district, or the use of reasonable force to protect persons or property, when administered by personnel of a school district in a reasonable manner in accordance with the local board of education's written policy of discipline, is not abuse within the meaning of chapter 210. The provisions of sections 210.110 to 210.165 notwithstanding, the children's division shall not have jurisdiction over or investigate any report of alleged child abuse arising out of or related to the use of reasonable force to protect persons or property when administered by personnel of a school district or any spanking administered in a reasonable manner by any certificated school personnel in the presence of a witness who is an employee of the school district pursuant to a written policy of discipline established by the board of education of the school district, as long as no allegation of sexual misconduct arises from the spanking or use of force.

            11. If a student reports alleged sexual misconduct on the part of a teacher or other school employee to a person employed in a school facility who is required to report such misconduct to the children's division under section 210.115, such person and the superintendent of the school district shall forward the allegation to the children's division within twenty-four hours of receiving the information. Reports made to the children's division under this subsection shall be investigated by the division in accordance with the provisions of sections 210.145 to 210.153 and shall not be investigated by the school district under subsections 12 to 20 of this section for purposes of determining whether the allegations should or should not be substantiated. The district may investigate the allegations for the purpose of making any decision regarding the employment of the accused employee.

            12. Upon receipt of any reports of child abuse by the children's division other than reports provided under subsection 11 of this section, pursuant to sections 210.110 to 210.165 which allegedly involve personnel of a school district, the children's division shall notify the superintendent of schools of the district or, if the person named in the alleged incident is the superintendent of schools, the president of the school board of the school district where the alleged incident occurred.

            13. If, after an initial investigation, the superintendent of schools or the president of the school board finds that the report involves an alleged incident of child abuse other than the administration of a spanking by certificated school personnel or the use of reasonable force to protect persons or property when administered by school personnel pursuant to a written policy of discipline or that the report was made for the sole purpose of harassing a public school employee, the superintendent of schools or the president of the school board shall immediately refer the matter back to the children's division and take no further action. In all matters referred back to the children's division, the division shall treat the report in the same manner as other reports of alleged child abuse received by the division.

            14. If the report pertains to an alleged incident which arose out of or is related to a spanking administered by certificated personnel or the use of reasonable force to protect persons or property when administered by personnel of a school district pursuant to a written policy of discipline or a report made for the sole purpose of harassing a public school employee, a notification of the reported child abuse shall be sent by the superintendent of schools or the president of the school board to the law enforcement in the county in which the alleged incident occurred.

            15. The report shall be jointly investigated by the law enforcement officer and the superintendent of schools or, if the subject of the report is the superintendent of schools, by a law enforcement officer and the president of the school board or such president's designee.

            16. The investigation shall begin no later than forty-eight hours after notification from the children's division is received, and shall consist of, but need not be limited to, interviewing and recording statements of the child and the child's parents or guardian within two working days after the start of the investigation, of the school district personnel allegedly involved in the report, and of any witnesses to the alleged incident.

            17. The law enforcement officer and the investigating school district personnel shall issue separate reports of their findings and recommendations after the conclusion of the investigation to the school board of the school district within seven days after receiving notice from the children's division.

            18. The reports shall contain a statement of conclusion as to whether the report of alleged child abuse is substantiated or is unsubstantiated.

            19. The school board shall consider the separate reports referred to in subsection 17 of this section and shall issue its findings and conclusions and the action to be taken, if any, within seven days after receiving the last of the two reports. The findings and conclusions shall be made in substantially the following form:

            (1) The report of the alleged child abuse is unsubstantiated. The law enforcement officer and the investigating school board personnel agree that there was not a preponderance of evidence to substantiate that abuse occurred;

            (2) The report of the alleged child abuse is substantiated. The law enforcement officer and the investigating school district personnel agree that the preponderance of evidence is sufficient to support a finding that the alleged incident of child abuse did occur;

            (3) The issue involved in the alleged incident of child abuse is unresolved. The law enforcement officer and the investigating school personnel are unable to agree on their findings and conclusions on the alleged incident.

            20. The findings and conclusions of the school board under subsection 19 of this section shall be sent to the children's division. If the findings and conclusions of the school board are that the report of the alleged child abuse is unsubstantiated, the investigation shall be terminated, the case closed, and no record shall be entered in the children's division central registry. If the findings and conclusions of the school board are that the report of the alleged child abuse is substantiated, the children's division shall report the incident to the prosecuting attorney of the appropriate county along with the findings and conclusions of the school district and shall include the information in the division's central registry. If the findings and conclusions of the school board are that the issue involved in the alleged incident of child abuse is unresolved, the children's division shall report the incident to the prosecuting attorney of the appropriate county along with the findings and conclusions of the school board, however, the incident and the names of the parties allegedly involved shall not be entered into the central registry of the children's division unless and until the alleged child abuse is substantiated by a court of competent jurisdiction.

            21. Any superintendent of schools, president of a school board or such person's designee or law enforcement officer who knowingly falsifies any report of any matter pursuant to this section or who knowingly withholds any information relative to any investigation or report pursuant to this section is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.

            22. In order to ensure the safety of all students, should a student be expelled for bringing a weapon to school, violent behavior, or for an act of school violence, that student shall not, for the purposes of the accreditation process of the Missouri school improvement plan, be considered a dropout or be included in the calculation of that district's educational persistence ratio.

            167.115. 1. Notwithstanding any provision of chapter 211 or chapter 610 to the contrary, the juvenile officer, sheriff, chief of police or other appropriate law enforcement authority shall, as soon as reasonably practical, notify the superintendent, or the superintendent's designee, of the school district in which the pupil is enrolled when a petition is filed pursuant to subsection 1 of section 211.031 alleging that the pupil has committed one of the following acts:

            (1) First degree murder under section 565.020;

            (2) Second degree murder under section 565.021;

            (3) Kidnapping under section 565.110;

            (4) First degree assault under section 565.050;

            (5) [Forcible] Rape in the first degree under section 566.030;

            (6) [Forcible] Sodomy in the first degree under section 566.060;

            (7) Burglary in the first degree under section 569.160;

            (8) Robbery in the first degree under section 569.020;

            (9) Distribution of drugs under section 195.211;

            (10) Distribution of drugs to a minor under section 195.212;

            (11) Arson in the first degree under section 569.040;

            (12) Voluntary manslaughter under section 565.023;

            (13) Involuntary manslaughter under section 565.024;

            (14) Second degree assault under section 565.060;

            (15) [Sexual assault] Rape in the second degree under section [566.040] 566.031;

            (16) Felonious restraint under section 565.120;

            (17) Property damage in the first degree under section 569.100;

            (18) The possession of a weapon under chapter 571;

            (19) Child molestation in the first degree pursuant to section 566.067;

            (20) [Deviate sexual assault] Sodomy in the second degree pursuant to section [566.070] 566.061;

            (21) Sexual misconduct involving a child pursuant to section 566.083; or

            (22) Sexual abuse in the first degree pursuant to section 566.100.

            2. The notification shall be made orally or in writing, in a timely manner, no later than five days following the filing of the petition. If the report is made orally, written notice shall follow in a timely manner. The notification shall include a complete description of the conduct the pupil is alleged to have committed and the dates the conduct occurred but shall not include the name of any victim. Upon the disposition of any such case, the juvenile office or prosecuting attorney or their designee shall send a second notification to the superintendent providing the disposition of the case, including a brief summary of the relevant finding of facts, no later than five days following the disposition of the case.

            3. The superintendent or the designee of the superintendent shall report such information to teachers and other school district employees with a need to know while acting within the scope of their assigned duties. Any information received by school district officials pursuant to this section shall be received in confidence and used for the limited purpose of assuring that good order and discipline is maintained in the school. This information shall not be used as the sole basis for not providing educational services to a public school pupil.

            4. The superintendent shall notify the appropriate division of the juvenile or family court upon any pupil's suspension for more than ten days or expulsion of any pupil that the school district is aware is under the jurisdiction of the court.

            5. The superintendent or the superintendent's designee may be called to serve in a consultant capacity at any dispositional proceedings pursuant to section 211.031 which may involve reference to a pupil's academic treatment plan.

            6. Upon the transfer of any pupil described in this section to any other school district in this state, the superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall forward the written notification given to the superintendent pursuant to subsection 2 of this section to the superintendent of the new school district in which the pupil has enrolled. Such written notification shall be required again in the event of any subsequent transfer by the pupil.

            7. As used in this section, the terms "school" and "school district" shall include any charter, private or parochial school or school district, and the term "superintendent" shall include the principal or equivalent chief school officer in the cases of charter, private or parochial schools.

            8. The superintendent or the designee of the superintendent or other school employee who, in good faith, reports information in accordance with the terms of this section and section 160.261 shall not be civilly liable for providing such information.

            167.171. 1. The school board in any district, by general rule and for the causes provided in section 167.161, may authorize the summary suspension of pupils by principals of schools for a period not to exceed ten school days and by the superintendent of schools for a period not to exceed one hundred and eighty school days. In case of a suspension by the superintendent for more than ten school days, the pupil, the pupil's parents or others having such pupil's custodial care may appeal the decision of the superintendent to the board or to a committee of board members appointed by the president of the board which shall have full authority to act in lieu of the board. Any suspension by a principal shall be immediately reported to the superintendent who may revoke the suspension at any time. In event of an appeal to the board, the superintendent shall promptly transmit to it a full report in writing of the facts relating to the suspension, the action taken by the superintendent and the reasons therefor and the board, upon request, shall grant a hearing to the appealing party to be conducted as provided in section 167.161.

            2. No pupil shall be suspended unless:

            (1) The pupil shall be given oral or written notice of the charges against such pupil;

            (2) If the pupil denies the charges, such pupil shall be given an oral or written explanation of the facts which form the basis of the proposed suspension;

            (3) The pupil shall be given an opportunity to present such pupil's version of the incident; and

            (4) In the event of a suspension for more than ten school days, where the pupil gives notice that such pupil wishes to appeal the suspension to the board, the suspension shall be stayed until the board renders its decision, unless in the judgment of the superintendent of schools, or of the district superintendent, the pupil's presence poses a continuing danger to persons or property or an ongoing threat of disrupting the academic process, in which case the pupil may be immediately removed from school, and the notice and hearing shall follow as soon as practicable.

            3. No school board shall readmit or enroll a pupil properly suspended for more than ten consecutive school days for an act of school violence as defined in subsection 2 of section 160.261 regardless of whether or not such act was committed at a public school or at a private school in this state, provided that such act shall have resulted in the suspension or expulsion of such pupil in the case of a private school, or otherwise permit such pupil to attend school without first holding a conference to review the conduct that resulted in the expulsion or suspension and any remedial actions needed to prevent any future occurrences of such or related conduct. The conference shall include the appropriate school officials including any teacher employed in that school or district directly involved with the conduct that resulted in the suspension or expulsion, the pupil, the parent or guardian of the pupil or any agency having legal jurisdiction, care, custody or control of the pupil. The school board shall notify in writing the parents or guardians and all other parties of the time, place, and agenda of any such conference. Failure of any party to attend this conference shall not preclude holding the conference. Notwithstanding any provision of this subsection to the contrary, no pupil shall be readmitted or enrolled to a regular program of instruction if:

            (1) Such pupil has been convicted of; or

            (2) An indictment or information has been filed alleging that the pupil has committed one of the acts enumerated in subdivision (4) of this subsection to which there has been no final judgment; or

            (3) A petition has been filed pursuant to section 211.091 alleging that the pupil has committed one of the acts enumerated in subdivision (4) of this subsection to which there has been no final judgment; or

            (4) The pupil has been adjudicated to have committed an act which if committed by an adult would be one of the following:

            (a) First degree murder under section 565.020;

            (b) Second degree murder under section 565.021;

            (c) First degree assault under section 565.050;

            (d) [Forcible] Rape in the first degree under section 566.030;

            (e) [Forcible] Sodomy in the first degree under section 566.060;

            (f) Statutory rape under section 566.032;

            (g) Statutory sodomy under section 566.062;

            (h) Robbery in the first degree under section 569.020;

            (i) Distribution of drugs to a minor under section 195.212;

            (j) Arson in the first degree under section 569.040;

            (k) Kidnapping, when classified as a class A felony under section 565.110. Nothing in this subsection shall prohibit the readmittance or enrollment of any pupil if a petition has been dismissed, or when a pupil has been acquitted or adjudicated not to have committed any of the above acts. This subsection shall not apply to a student with a disability, as identified under state eligibility criteria, who is convicted or adjudicated guilty as a result of an action related to the student's disability. Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to prohibit a school district which provides an alternative education program from enrolling a pupil in an alternative education program if the district determines such enrollment is appropriate.

            4. If a pupil is attempting to enroll in a school district during a suspension or expulsion from another in-state or out-of-state school district including a private, charter or parochial school or school district, a conference with the superintendent or the superintendent's designee may be held at the request of the parent, court-appointed legal guardian, someone acting as a parent as defined by rule in the case of a special education student, or the pupil to consider if the conduct of the pupil would have resulted in a suspension or expulsion in the district in which the pupil is enrolling. Upon a determination by the superintendent or the superintendent's designee that such conduct would have resulted in a suspension or expulsion in the district in which the pupil is enrolling or attempting to enroll, the school district may make such suspension or expulsion from another school or district effective in the district in which the pupil is enrolling or attempting to enroll. Upon a determination by the superintendent or the superintendent's designee that such conduct would not have resulted in a suspension or expulsion in the district in which the student is enrolling or attempting to enroll, the school district shall not make such suspension or expulsion effective in its district in which the student is enrolling or attempting to enroll.

            168.071. 1. The state board of education may refuse to issue or renew a certificate, or may, upon hearing, discipline the holder of a certificate of license to teach for the following causes:

            (1) A certificate holder or applicant for a certificate has pleaded to or been found guilty of a felony or crime involving moral turpitude under the laws of this state, any other state, of the United States, or any other country, whether or not sentence is imposed;

            (2) The certification was obtained through use of fraud, deception, misrepresentation or bribery;

            (3) There is evidence of incompetence, immorality, or neglect of duty by the certificate holder;

            (4) A certificate holder has been subject to disciplinary action relating to certification issued by another state, territory, federal agency, or country upon grounds for which discipline is authorized in this section; or

            (5) If charges are filed by the local board of education, based upon the annulling of a written contract with the local board of education, for reasons other than election to the general assembly, without the consent of the majority of the members of the board that is a party to the contract.

            2. A public school district may file charges seeking the discipline of a holder of a certificate of license to teach based upon any cause or combination of causes outlined in subsection 1 of this section, including annulment of a written contract. Charges shall be in writing, specify the basis for the charges, and be signed by the chief administrative officer of the district, or by the president of the board of education as authorized by a majority of the board of education. The board of education may also petition the office of the attorney general to file charges on behalf of the school district for any cause other than annulment of contract, with acceptance of the petition at the discretion of the attorney general.

            3. The department of elementary and secondary education may file charges seeking the discipline of a holder of a certificate of license to teach based upon any cause or combination of causes outlined in subsection 1 of this section, other than annulment of contract. Charges shall be in writing, specify the basis for the charges, and be signed by legal counsel representing the department of elementary and secondary education.

            4. If the underlying conduct or actions which are the basis for charges filed pursuant to this section are also the subject of a pending criminal charge against the person holding such certificate, the certificate holder may request, in writing, a delayed hearing on advice of counsel under the fifth amendment of the Constitution of the United States. Based upon such a request, no hearing shall be held until after a trial has been completed on this criminal charge.

            5. The certificate holder shall be given not less than thirty days' notice of any hearing held pursuant to this section.

            6. Other provisions of this section notwithstanding, the certificate of license to teach shall be revoked or, in the case of an applicant, a certificate shall not be issued, if the certificate holder or applicant has pleaded guilty to or been found guilty of any of the following offenses established pursuant to Missouri law or offenses of a similar nature established under the laws of Missouri prior to August 28, 2012, any other state or of the United States, or any other country, whether or not the sentence is imposed:

            (1) Any dangerous felony as defined in section 556.061, or murder in the first degree under section 565.020;

            (2) Any of the following sexual offenses: rape in the first degree under section 566.030; statutory rape in the first degree under section 566.032; statutory rape in the second degree under section 566.034; [sexual assault] rape in the second degree under section [566.040; forcible] 566.031; sodomy in the first degree under section 566.060; statutory sodomy in the first degree under section 566.062; statutory sodomy in the second degree under section 566.064; child molestation in the first degree under section 566.067; child molestation in the second degree under section 566.068; [deviate sexual assault under section 566.070] sodomy in the second degree under section 566.061; child molestation in the third degree under section 566.069; child molestation in the fourth degree under section 566.071; sexual misconduct involving a child under section 566.083; sexual contact with a student [while on public school property] under section 566.086; sexual [misconduct in the first degree] abuse in the second degree under section 566.090; sexual misconduct in the [second] first degree under section 566.093; sexual misconduct in the [third] second degree under section 566.095; sexual abuse in the first degree under section 566.100; enticement of a child under section 566.151; or attempting to entice a child;

            (3) Any of the following offenses against the family and related offenses: incest under section 568.020; abandonment of child in the first degree under section 568.030; abandonment of child in the second degree under section 568.032; endangering the welfare of a child in the first degree under section 568.045; abuse of a child under section 568.060; child used in a sexual performance under section [568.080] 573.200; promoting sexual performance by a child under section [568.090] 573.205; or trafficking in children under section 568.175; and

            (4) Any of the following offenses involving child pornography and related offenses: promoting obscenity in the first degree under section 573.020; promoting pornography for minors or obscenity in the second degree when the penalty is enhanced to a class [D] E felony under section 573.030; promoting child pornography in the first degree under section 573.025; promoting child pornography in the second degree under section 573.035; possession of child pornography under section 573.037; furnishing pornographic materials to minors under section 573.040; or coercing acceptance of obscene material under section 573.065.

            7. When a certificate holder pleads guilty or is found guilty of any offense that would authorize the state board of education to seek discipline against that holder's certificate of license to teach, the local board of education or the department of elementary and secondary education shall immediately provide written notice to the state board of education and the attorney general regarding the plea of guilty or finding of guilty.

            8. The certificate holder whose certificate was revoked pursuant to subsection 6 of this section may appeal such revocation to the state board of education. Notice of this appeal must be received by the commissioner of education within ninety days of notice of revocation pursuant to this subsection. Failure of the certificate holder to notify the commissioner of the intent to appeal waives all rights to appeal the revocation. Upon notice of the certificate holder's intent to appeal, an appeal hearing shall be held by a hearing officer designated by the commissioner of education, with the final decision made by the state board of education, based upon the record of that hearing. The certificate holder shall be given not less than thirty days' notice of the hearing, and an opportunity to be heard by the hearing officer, together with witnesses.

            9. In the case of any certificate holder who has surrendered or failed to renew his or her certificate of license to teach, the state board of education may refuse to issue or renew, or may suspend or revoke, such certificate for any of the reasons contained in this section.

            10. In those cases where the charges filed pursuant to this section are based upon an allegation of misconduct involving a minor child, the hearing officer may accept into the record the sworn testimony of the minor child relating to the misconduct received in any court or administrative hearing.

            11. Hearings, appeals or other matters involving certificate holders, licensees or applicants pursuant to this section may be informally resolved by consent agreement or agreed settlement or voluntary surrender of the certificate of license pursuant to the rules promulgated by the state board of education.

            12. The final decision of the state board of education is subject to judicial review pursuant to sections 536.100 to 536.140.

            13. A certificate of license to teach to an individual who has been convicted of a felony or crime involving moral turpitude, whether or not sentence is imposed, shall be issued only upon motion of the state board of education adopted by a unanimous affirmative vote of those members present and voting.

            188.023. Any licensed health care professional who delivers a baby or performs an abortion, who has prima facie evidence that a patient has been the victim of statutory rape in the first degree or statutory rape in the second degree, or if the patient is under the age of eighteen, that he or she has been a victim of sexual abuse, including [forcible rape, sexual assault] rape in the first or second degree, or incest, shall be required to report such offenses in the same manner as provided for by section 210.115.

            188.030. 1. Except in the case of a medical emergency, no abortion of a viable unborn child shall be performed or induced unless the abortion is necessary to preserve the life of the pregnant woman whose life is endangered by a physical disorder, physical illness, or physical injury, including a life-endangering physical condition caused by or arising from the pregnancy itself, or when continuation of the pregnancy will create a serious risk of substantial and irreversible physical impairment of a major bodily function of the pregnant woman. For purposes of this section, "major bodily function" includes, but is not limited to, functions of the immune system, normal cell growth, digestive, bowel, bladder, neurological, brain, respiratory, circulatory, endocrine, and reproductive functions.

            2. Except in the case of a medical emergency:

            (1) Prior to performing or inducing an abortion upon a woman, the physician shall determine the gestational age of the unborn child in a manner consistent with accepted obstetrical and neonatal practices and standards. In making such determination, the physician shall make such inquiries of the pregnant woman and perform or cause to be performed such medical examinations, imaging studies, and tests as a reasonably prudent physician, knowledgeable about the medical facts and conditions of both the woman and the unborn child involved, would consider necessary to perform and consider in making an accurate diagnosis with respect to gestational age;

            (2) If the physician determines that the gestational age of the unborn child is twenty weeks or more, prior to performing or inducing an abortion upon the woman, the physician shall determine if the unborn child is viable by using and exercising that degree of care, skill, and proficiency commonly exercised by a skillful, careful, and prudent physician. In making this determination of viability, the physician shall perform or cause to be performed such medical examinations and tests as are necessary to make a finding of the gestational age, weight, and lung maturity of the unborn child and shall enter such findings and determination of viability in the medical record of the woman;

            (3) If the physician determines that the gestational age of the unborn child is twenty weeks or more, and further determines that the unborn child is not viable and performs or induces an abortion upon the woman, the physician shall report such findings and determinations and the reasons for such determinations to the health care facility in which the abortion is performed and to the state board of registration for the healing arts, and shall enter such findings and determinations in the medical records of the woman and in the individual abortion report submitted to the department under section 188.052;

            (4) (a) If the physician determines that the unborn child is viable, the physician shall not perform or induce an abortion upon the woman unless the abortion is necessary to preserve the life of the pregnant woman or that a continuation of the pregnancy will create a serious risk of substantial and irreversible physical impairment of a major bodily function of the woman.

            (b) Before a physician may proceed with performing or inducing an abortion upon a woman when it has been determined that the unborn child is viable, the physician shall first certify in writing the medical threat posed to the life of the pregnant woman, or the medical reasons that continuation of the pregnancy would cause a serious risk of substantial and irreversible physical impairment of a major bodily function of the pregnant woman. Upon completion of the abortion, the physician shall report the reasons and determinations for the abortion of a viable unborn child to the health care facility in which the abortion is performed and to the state board of registration for the healing arts, and shall enter such findings and determinations in the medical record of the woman and in the individual abortion report submitted to the department under section 188.052.

            (c) Before a physician may proceed with performing or inducing an abortion upon a woman when it has been determined that the unborn child is viable, the physician who is to perform the abortion shall obtain the agreement of a second physician with knowledge of accepted obstetrical and neonatal practices and standards who shall concur that the abortion is necessary to preserve the life of the pregnant woman, or that continuation of the pregnancy would cause a serious risk of substantial and irreversible physical impairment of a major bodily function of the pregnant woman. This second physician shall also report such reasons and determinations to the health care facility in which the abortion is to be performed and to the state board of registration for the healing arts, and shall enter such findings and determinations in the medical record of the woman and the individual abortion report submitted to the department under section 188.052. The second physician shall not have any legal or financial affiliation or relationship with the physician performing or inducing the abortion, except that such prohibition shall not apply to physicians whose legal or financial affiliation or relationship is a result of being employed by or having staff privileges at the same hospital as the term "hospital" is defined in section 197.020.

            (d) Any physician who performs or induces an abortion upon a woman when it has been determined that the unborn child is viable shall utilize the available method or technique of abortion most likely to preserve the life or health of the unborn child. In cases where the method or technique of abortion most likely to preserve the life or health of the unborn child would present a greater risk to the life or health of the woman than another legally permitted and available method or technique, the physician may utilize such other method or technique. In all cases where the physician performs an abortion upon a viable unborn child, the physician shall certify in writing the available method or techniques considered and the reasons for choosing the method or technique employed.

            (e) No physician shall perform or induce an abortion upon a woman when it has been determined that the unborn child is viable unless there is in attendance a physician other than the physician performing or inducing the abortion who shall take control of and provide immediate medical care for a child born as a result of the abortion. During the performance of the abortion, the physician performing it, and subsequent to the abortion, the physician required to be in attendance, shall take all reasonable steps in keeping with good medical practice, consistent with the procedure used, to preserve the life or health of the viable unborn child; provided that it does not pose an increased risk to the life of the woman or does not pose an increased risk of substantial and irreversible physical impairment of a major bodily function of the woman.

            3. Any person who knowingly performs or induces an abortion of an unborn child in violation of the provisions of this section is guilty of a class [C] D felony, and, upon a finding of guilt or plea of guilty, shall be imprisoned for a term of not less than one year, and, notwithstanding the provisions of section 560.011, shall be fined not less than ten thousand nor more than fifty thousand dollars.

            4. Any physician who pleads guilty to or is found guilty of performing or inducing an abortion of an unborn child in violation of this section shall be subject to suspension or revocation of his or her license to practice medicine in the state of Missouri by the state board of registration for the healing arts under the provisions of sections 334.100 and 334.103.

            5. Any hospital licensed in the state of Missouri that knowingly allows an abortion of an unborn child to be performed or induced in violation of this section may be subject to suspension or revocation of its license under the provisions of section 197.070.

            6. Any ambulatory surgical center licensed in the state of Missouri that knowingly allows an abortion of an unborn child to be performed or induced in violation of this section may be subject to suspension or revocation of its license under the provisions of section 197.220.

            7. A woman upon whom an abortion is performed or induced in violation of this section shall not be prosecuted for a conspiracy to violate the provisions of this section.

            8. Nothing in this section shall be construed as creating or recognizing a right to abortion, nor is it the intention of this section to make lawful any abortion that is currently unlawful.

            9. It is the intent of the legislature that this section be severable as noted in section 1.140. In the event that any section, subsection, subdivision, paragraph, sentence, or clause of this section be declared invalid under the Constitution of the United States or the Constitution of the State of Missouri, it is the intent of the legislature that the remaining provisions of this section remain in force and effect as far as capable of being carried into execution as intended by the legislature.

            10. The general assembly may, by concurrent resolution, appoint one or more of its members who sponsored or co-sponsored this act in his or her official capacity to intervene as a matter of right in any case in which the constitutionality of this law is challenged.

            190.621. 1. Any person who knowingly conceals, cancels, defaces, or obliterates the outside the hospital do-not-resuscitate order or the outside the hospital do-not-resuscitate identification of another person without the consent of the other person, or who knowingly falsifies or forges a revocation of the outside the hospital do-not-resuscitate order or the outside the hospital do-not-resuscitate identification of another person, is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.

            2. Any person who knowingly executes, falsifies, or forges an outside the hospital do-not-resuscitate order or an outside the hospital do-not-resuscitate identification of another person without the consent of the other person, or who knowingly conceals or withholds personal knowledge of a revocation of an outside the hospital do-not-resuscitate order or an outside the hospital do-not-resuscitate identification of another person, is guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            191.905. 1. No health care provider shall knowingly make or cause to be made a false statement or false representation of a material fact in order to receive a health care payment, including but not limited to:

            (1) Knowingly presenting to a health care payer a claim for a health care payment that falsely represents that the health care for which the health care payment is claimed was medically necessary, if in fact it was not;

            (2) Knowingly concealing the occurrence of any event affecting an initial or continued right under a medical assistance program to have a health care payment made by a health care payer for providing health care;

            (3) Knowingly concealing or failing to disclose any information with the intent to obtain a health care payment to which the health care provider or any other health care provider is not entitled, or to obtain a health care payment in an amount greater than that which the health care provider or any other health care provider is entitled;

            (4) Knowingly presenting a claim to a health care payer that falsely indicates that any particular health care was provided to a person or persons, if in fact health care of lesser value than that described in the claim was provided.

            2. No person shall knowingly solicit or receive any remuneration, including any kickback, bribe, or rebate, directly or indirectly, overtly or covertly, in cash or in kind in return for:

            (1) Referring another person to a health care provider for the furnishing or arranging for the furnishing of any health care; or

            (2) Purchasing, leasing, ordering or arranging for or recommending purchasing, leasing or ordering any health care.

            3. No person shall knowingly offer or pay any remuneration, including any kickback, bribe, or rebate, directly or indirectly, overtly or covertly, in cash or in kind, to any person to induce such person to refer another person to a health care provider for the furnishing or arranging for the furnishing of any health care.

            4. Subsections 2 and 3 of this section shall not apply to a discount or other reduction in price obtained by a health care provider if the reduction in price is properly disclosed and appropriately reflected in the claim made by the health care provider to the health care payer, or any amount paid by an employer to an employee for employment in the provision of health care.             5. Exceptions to the provisions of subsections 2 and 3 of this subsection shall be provided for as authorized in 42 U.S.C. Section 1320a-7b(3)(E), as may be from time to time amended, and regulations promulgated pursuant thereto.

            6. No person shall knowingly abuse a person receiving health care.

            7. A person who violates subsections 1 to 3 of this section is guilty of a class [C] D felony upon his or her first conviction, and shall be guilty of a class B felony upon his or her second and subsequent convictions. Any person who has been convicted of such violations shall be referred to the Office of Inspector General within the United States Department of Health and Human Services. The person so referred shall be subject to the penalties provided for under 42 U.S.C. Chapter 7, Subchapter XI, Section 1320a-7. A prior conviction shall be pleaded and proven as provided by section 558.021. A person who violates subsection 6 of this section shall be guilty of a class [C] D felony, unless the act involves no physical, sexual or emotional harm or injury and the value of the property involved is less than five hundred dollars, in which event a violation of subsection 6 of this section is a class A misdemeanor.

            8. Any natural person who willfully prevents, obstructs, misleads, delays, or attempts to prevent, obstruct, mislead, or delay the communication of information or records relating to a violation of sections 191.900 to 191.910 is guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            9. Each separate false statement or false representation of a material fact proscribed by subsection 1 of this section or act proscribed by subsection 2 or 3 of this section shall constitute a separate offense and a separate violation of this section, whether or not made at the same or different times, as part of the same or separate episodes, as part of the same scheme or course of conduct, or as part of the same claim.

            10. In a prosecution pursuant to subsection 1 of this section, circumstantial evidence may be presented to demonstrate that a false statement or claim was knowingly made. Such evidence of knowledge may include but shall not be limited to the following:

            (1) A claim for a health care payment submitted with the health care provider's actual, facsimile, stamped, typewritten or similar signature on the claim for health care payment;

            (2) A claim for a health care payment submitted by means of computer billing tapes or other electronic means;

            (3) A course of conduct involving other false claims submitted to this or any other health care payer.

            11. Any person convicted of a violation of this section, in addition to any fines, penalties or sentences imposed by law, shall be required to make restitution to the federal and state governments, in an amount at least equal to that unlawfully paid to or by the person, and shall be required to reimburse the reasonable costs attributable to the investigation and prosecution pursuant to sections 191.900 to 191.910. All of such restitution shall be paid and deposited to the credit of the "MO HealthNet Fraud Reimbursement Fund", which is hereby established in the state treasury. Moneys in the MO HealthNet fraud reimbursement fund shall be divided and appropriated to the federal government and affected state agencies in order to refund moneys falsely obtained from the federal and state governments. All of such cost reimbursements attributable to the investigation and prosecution shall be paid and deposited to the credit of the "MO HealthNet Fraud Prosecution Revolving Fund", which is hereby established in the state treasury. Moneys in the MO HealthNet fraud prosecution revolving fund may be appropriated to the attorney general, or to any prosecuting or circuit attorney who has successfully prosecuted an action for a violation of sections 191.900 to 191.910 and been awarded such costs of prosecution, in order to defray the costs of the attorney general and any such prosecuting or circuit attorney in connection with their duties provided by sections 191.900 to 191.910. No moneys shall be paid into the MO HealthNet fraud protection revolving fund pursuant to this subsection unless the attorney general or appropriate prosecuting or circuit attorney shall have commenced a prosecution pursuant to this section, and the court finds in its discretion that payment of attorneys' fees and investigative costs is appropriate under all the circumstances, and the attorney general and prosecuting or circuit attorney shall prove to the court those expenses which were reasonable and necessary to the investigation and prosecution of such case, and the court approves such expenses as being reasonable and necessary. Any moneys remaining in the MO HealthNet fraud reimbursement fund after division and appropriation to the federal government and affected state agencies shall be used to increase MO HealthNet provider reimbursement until it is at least one hundred percent of the Medicare provider reimbursement rate for comparable services. The provisions of section 33.080 notwithstanding, moneys in the MO HealthNet fraud prosecution revolving fund shall not lapse at the end of the biennium.

            12. A person who violates subsections 1 to 3 of this section shall be liable for a civil penalty of not less than five thousand dollars and not more than ten thousand dollars for each separate act in violation of such subsections, plus three times the amount of damages which the state and federal government sustained because of the act of that person, except that the court may assess not more than two times the amount of damages which the state and federal government sustained because of the act of the person, if the court finds:

            (1) The person committing the violation of this section furnished personnel employed by the attorney general and responsible for investigating violations of sections 191.900 to 191.910 with all information known to such person about the violation within thirty days after the date on which the defendant first obtained the information;

            (2) Such person fully cooperated with any government investigation of such violation; and

            (3) At the time such person furnished the personnel of the attorney general with the information about the violation, no criminal prosecution, civil action, or administrative action had commenced with respect to such violation, and the person did not have actual knowledge of the existence of an investigation into such violation.

            13. Upon conviction pursuant to this section, the prosecution authority shall provide written notification of the conviction to all regulatory or disciplinary agencies with authority over the conduct of the defendant health care provider.

            14. The attorney general may bring a civil action against any person who shall receive a health care payment as a result of a false statement or false representation of a material fact made or caused to be made by that person. The person shall be liable for up to double the amount of all payments received by that person based upon the false statement or false representation of a material fact, and the reasonable costs attributable to the prosecution of the civil action. All such restitution shall be paid and deposited to the credit of the MO HealthNet fraud reimbursement fund, and all such cost reimbursements shall be paid and deposited to the credit of the MO HealthNet fraud prosecution revolving fund. No reimbursement of such costs attributable to the prosecution of the civil action shall be made or allowed except with the approval of the court having jurisdiction of the civil action. No civil action provided by this subsection shall be brought if restitution and civil penalties provided by subsections 11 and 12 of this section have been previously ordered against the person for the same cause of action.

            15. Any person who discovers a violation by himself or herself or such person's organization and who reports such information voluntarily before such information is public or known to the attorney general shall not be prosecuted for a criminal violation.

            191.914. 1. Any person who intentionally files a false report or claim alleging a violation of sections 191.900 to 191.910 is guilty of a class A misdemeanor. Any second or subsequent violation of this section is a class [D] E felony and shall be punished as provided by law.

            2. Any person who receives any compensation in exchange for knowingly failing to report any violation of subsections 1 to 3 of section 191.905 is guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            193.315. 1. Any person who knowingly makes any false statement in a certificate, record, or report required by sections 193.005 to 193.325 or in an application for an amendment thereof, or in an application for a certified copy of a vital record, or who knowingly supplies false information intending that such information be used in the preparation of any such report, record, or certificate, or amendment thereof shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            2. Any person who, without lawful authority and with the intent to deceive, makes, counterfeits, alters, amends, or mutilates any certificate, record, or report required by sections 193.005 to 193.325, certified copy of such certificate, record, or report shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            3. Any person who knowingly obtains, possesses, uses, sells, furnishes or attempts to obtain, possess, use, sell, or furnish to another, for any purpose of deception, any certificate, record, or report required by sections 193.005 to 193.325 or certified copy thereof so made, counterfeited, altered, amended, or mutilated, or which is false in whole or in part or which relates to the birth of another person, whether living or deceased, shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            4. Any employee of the department or involved with the system of vital statistics who knowingly furnishes or processes a certificate of birth, or certified copy of a certificate of birth, with the knowledge or intention that it be used for the purposes of deception shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            5. Any person who without lawful authority possesses any certificate, record, or report, required by sections 193.005 to 193.325 or a copy or certified copy of such certificate, record, or report knowing same to have been stolen, or otherwise unlawfully obtained, shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            6. Any person who knowingly refuses to provide information required by sections 193.005 to 193.325, or regulations adopted hereunder, shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor.             7. Any person who knowingly neglects or violates any of the provisions of sections 193.005 to 193.325 or refuses to perform any of the duties imposed upon him by sections 193.005 to 193.325 shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor.

            194.410. 1. Any person, corporation, partnership, proprietorship, or organization who knowingly disturbs, destroys, vandalizes, or damages a marked or unmarked human burial site commits a class [D] E felony.

            2. Any person who knowingly appropriates for profit, uses for profit, sells, purchases or transports for sale or profit any human remains without the right of possession to those remains as provided in sections 194.400 to 194.410 commits a class A misdemeanor and, in the case of a second or subsequent violation, commits a class [D] E felony.

            3. Any person who knowingly appropriates for profit, uses for profit, sells, purchases or transports for sale or profit any cultural items obtained in violation of sections 194.400 to 194.410 commits a class A misdemeanor and, in the case of a second or subsequent violation, commits a class [D] E felony.

            194.425. 1. A person commits the crime of abandonment of a corpse if that person abandons, disposes, deserts or leaves a corpse without properly reporting the location of the body to the proper law enforcement officials in that county.

            2. Abandonment of a corpse is a class [D] E felony.

            195.005. [Sections 195.005 to 195.425] This chapter and chapter 579 shall be known as the "Comprehensive Drug Control Act [of 1989]".

            195.010. The following words and phrases as used in [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter and chapter 579, unless the context otherwise requires, mean:

            (1) "Addict", a person who habitually uses one or more controlled substances to such an extent as to create a tolerance for such drugs, and who does not have a medical need for such drugs, or who is so far addicted to the use of such drugs as to have lost the power of self-control with reference to his or her addiction;

            (2) "Administer", to apply a controlled substance, whether by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means, directly to the body of a patient or research subject by:

            (a) A practitioner (or, in his or her presence, by his or her authorized agent); or

            (b) The patient or research subject at the direction and in the presence of the practitioner;

            (3) "Agent", an authorized person who acts on behalf of or at the direction of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser. The term does not include a common or contract carrier, public warehouseman, or employee of the carrier or warehouseman while acting in the usual and lawful course of the carrier's or warehouseman's business;

            (4) "Attorney for the state", any prosecuting attorney, circuit attorney, or attorney general authorized to investigate, commence and prosecute an action under [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter;

            (5) "Controlled substance", a drug, substance, or immediate precursor in Schedules I through V listed in [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter;

            (6) "Controlled substance analogue", a substance the chemical structure of which is substantially similar to the chemical structure of a controlled substance in Schedule I or II and:

            (a) Which has a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system substantially similar to the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance included in Schedule I or II; or

            (b) With respect to a particular individual, which that individual represents or intends to have a stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system substantially similar to the stimulant, depressant, or hallucinogenic effect on the central nervous system of a controlled substance included in Schedule I or II. The term does not include a controlled substance; any substance for which there is an approved new drug application; any substance for which an exemption is in effect for investigational use, for a particular person, under Section 505 of the federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act (21 U.S.C. 355) to the extent conduct with respect to the substance is pursuant to the exemption; or any substance to the extent not intended for human consumption before such an exemption takes effect with respect to the substance;

            (7) "Counterfeit substance", a controlled substance which, or the container or labeling of which, without authorization, bears the trademark, trade name, or other identifying mark, imprint, number or device, or any likeness thereof, of a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser other than the person who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed the substance;

            (8) "Deliver" or "delivery", the actual, constructive, or attempted transfer from one person to another of drug paraphernalia or of a controlled substance, or an imitation controlled substance, whether or not there is an agency relationship, and includes a sale;

            (9) "Dentist", a person authorized by law to practice dentistry in this state;

            (10) "Depressant or stimulant substance":

            (a) A drug containing any quantity of barbituric acid or any of the salts of barbituric acid or any derivative of barbituric acid which has been designated by the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services as habit forming under 21 U.S.C. 352(d);

            (b) A drug containing any quantity of:

            a. Amphetamine or any of its isomers;

            b. Any salt of amphetamine or any salt of an isomer of amphetamine; or

            c. Any substance the United States Attorney General, after investigation, has found to be, and by regulation designated as, habit forming because of its stimulant effect on the central nervous system;

            (c) Lysergic acid diethylamide; or

            (d) Any drug containing any quantity of a substance that the United States Attorney General, after investigation, has found to have, and by regulation designated as having, a potential for abuse because of its depressant or stimulant effect on the central nervous system or its hallucinogenic effect;

            (11) "Dispense", to deliver a narcotic or controlled dangerous drug to an ultimate user or research subject by or pursuant to the lawful order of a practitioner including the prescribing, administering, packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare the substance for such delivery. "Dispenser" means a practitioner who dispenses;

            (12) "Distribute", to deliver other than by administering or dispensing a controlled substance;

            (13) "Distributor", a person who distributes;

            (14) "Drug":

            (a) Substances recognized as drugs in the official United States Pharmacopoeia, Official Homeopathic Pharmacopoeia of the United States, or Official National Formulary, or any supplement to any of them;

            (b) Substances intended for use in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment or prevention of disease in humans or animals;

            (c) Substances, other than food, intended to affect the structure or any function of the body of humans or animals; and

            (d) Substances intended for use as a component of any article specified in this subdivision. It does not include devices or their components, parts or accessories;

            (15) "Drug-dependent person", a person who is using a controlled substance and who is in a state of psychic or physical dependence, or both, arising from the use of such substance on a continuous basis. Drug dependence is characterized by behavioral and other responses which include a strong compulsion to take the substance on a continuous basis in order to experience its psychic effects or to avoid the discomfort caused by its absence;

            (16) "Drug enforcement agency", the Drug Enforcement Administration in the United States Department of Justice, or its successor agency;

            (17) "Drug paraphernalia", all equipment, products, substances and materials of any kind which are used, intended for use, or designed for use, in planting, propagating, cultivating, growing, harvesting, manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, preparing, storing, containing, concealing, injecting, ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing into the human body a controlled substance or an imitation controlled substance in violation of [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter. It includes, but is not limited to:

            (a) Kits used, intended for use, or designed for use in planting, propagating, cultivating, growing or harvesting of any species of plant which is a controlled substance or from which a controlled substance can be derived;

            (b) Kits used, intended for use, or designed for use in manufacturing, compounding, converting, producing, processing, or preparing controlled substances or imitation controlled substances;

            (c) Isomerization devices used, intended for use, or designed for use in increasing the potency of any species of plant which is a controlled substance or an imitation controlled substance;

            (d) Testing equipment used, intended for use, or designed for use in identifying, or in analyzing the strength, effectiveness or purity of controlled substances or imitation controlled substances;

            (e) Scales and balances used, intended for use, or designed for use in weighing or measuring controlled substances or imitation controlled substances;

            (f) Dilutents and adulterants, such as quinine hydrochloride, mannitol, mannite, dextrose and lactose, used, intended for use, or designed for use in cutting controlled substances or imitation controlled substances;

            (g) Separation gins and sifters used, intended for use, or designed for use in removing twigs and seeds from, or in otherwise cleaning or refining, marijuana;

            (h) Blenders, bowls, containers, spoons and mixing devices used, intended for use, or designed for use in compounding controlled substances or imitation controlled substances;

            (i) Capsules, balloons, envelopes and other containers used, intended for use, or designed for use in packaging small quantities of controlled substances or imitation controlled substances;

            (j) Containers and other objects used, intended for use, or designed for use in storing or concealing controlled substances or imitation controlled substances;

            (k) Hypodermic syringes, needles and other objects used, intended for use, or designed for use in parenterally injecting controlled substances or imitation controlled substances into the human body;

            (l) Objects used, intended for use, or designed for use in ingesting, inhaling, or otherwise introducing marijuana, cocaine, hashish, or hashish oil into the human body, such as:

            a. Metal, wooden, acrylic, glass, stone, plastic, or ceramic pipes with or without screens, permanent screens, hashish heads, or punctured metal bowls;

            b. Water pipes;

            c. Carburetion tubes and devices;

            d. Smoking and carburetion masks;

            e. Roach clips meaning objects used to hold burning material, such as a marijuana cigarette, that has become too small or too short to be held in the hand;

            f. Miniature cocaine spoons and cocaine vials;

            g. Chamber pipes;

            h. Carburetor pipes;

            i. Electric pipes;

            j. Air-driven pipes;

            k. Chillums;

            l. Bongs;

            m. Ice pipes or chillers;

            (m) Substances used, intended for use, or designed for use in the manufacture of a controlled substance;

 

In determining whether an object, product, substance or material is drug paraphernalia, a court or other authority should consider, in addition to all other logically relevant factors, the following:

            (a) Statements by an owner or by anyone in control of the object concerning its use;

            (b) Prior convictions, if any, of an owner, or of anyone in control of the object, under any state or federal law relating to any controlled substance or imitation controlled substance;

            (c) The proximity of the object, in time and space, to a direct violation of [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter;

            (d) The proximity of the object to controlled substances or imitation controlled substances;

            (e) The existence of any residue of controlled substances or imitation controlled substances on the object;

            (f) Direct or circumstantial evidence of the intent of an owner, or of anyone in control of the object, to deliver it to persons who he or she knows, or should reasonably know, intend to use the object to facilitate a violation of [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter; the innocence of an owner, or of anyone in control of the object, as to direct violation of [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter shall not prevent a finding that the object is intended for use, or designed for use as drug paraphernalia;

            (g) Instructions, oral or written, provided with the object concerning its use;

            (h) Descriptive materials accompanying the object which explain or depict its use;

            (i) National or local advertising concerning its use;

            (j) The manner in which the object is displayed for sale;

            (k) Whether the owner, or anyone in control of the object, is a legitimate supplier of like or related items to the community, such as a licensed distributor or dealer of tobacco products;

            (l) Direct or circumstantial evidence of the ratio of sales of the object to the total sales of the business enterprise;

            (m) The existence and scope of legitimate uses for the object in the community;

            (n) Expert testimony concerning its use;

            (o) The quantity, form or packaging of the product, substance or material in relation to the quantity, form or packaging associated with any legitimate use for the product, substance or material;

            (18) "Federal narcotic laws", the laws of the United States relating to controlled substances;

            (19) "Hospital", a place devoted primarily to the maintenance and operation of facilities for the diagnosis, treatment or care, for not less than twenty-four hours in any week, of three or more nonrelated individuals suffering from illness, disease, injury, deformity or other abnormal physical conditions; or a place devoted primarily to provide, for not less than twenty-four consecutive hours in any week, medical or nursing care for three or more nonrelated individuals. The term "hospital" does not include convalescent, nursing, shelter or boarding homes as defined in chapter 198;

            (20) "Immediate precursor", a substance which:

            (a) The state department of health and senior services has found to be and by rule designates as being the principal compound commonly used or produced primarily for use in the manufacture of a controlled substance;

            (b) Is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the manufacture of a controlled substance; and

            (c) The control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail or limit the manufacture of the controlled substance;

            (21) "Imitation controlled substance", a substance that is not a controlled substance, which by dosage unit appearance (including color, shape, size and markings), or by representations made, would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled substance. In determining whether the substance is an imitation controlled substance the court or authority concerned should consider, in addition to all other logically relevant factors, the following:

            (a) Whether the substance was approved by the federal Food and Drug Administration for over-the-counter (nonprescription or nonlegend) sales and was sold in the federal Food and Drug Administration approved package, with the federal Food and Drug Administration approved labeling information;

            (b) Statements made by an owner or by anyone else in control of the substance concerning the nature of the substance, or its use or effect;

            (c) Whether the substance is packaged in a manner normally used for illicit controlled substances;

            (d) Prior convictions, if any, of an owner, or anyone in control of the object, under state or federal law related to controlled substances or fraud;

            (e) The proximity of the substances to controlled substances;

            (f) Whether the consideration tendered in exchange for the noncontrolled substance substantially exceeds the reasonable value of the substance considering the actual chemical composition of the substance and, where applicable, the price at which over-the-counter substances of like chemical composition sell. An imitation controlled substance does not include a placebo or registered investigational drug either of which was manufactured, distributed, possessed or delivered in the ordinary course of professional practice or research;

            (22) "Laboratory", a laboratory approved by the department of health and senior services as proper to be entrusted with the custody of controlled substances but does not include a pharmacist who compounds controlled substances to be sold or dispensed on prescriptions;

            (23) "Manufacture", the production, preparation, propagation, compounding or processing of drug paraphernalia or of a controlled substance, or an imitation controlled substance, either directly or by extraction from substances of natural origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis, and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling or relabeling of its container. This term does not include the preparation or compounding of a controlled substance or an imitation controlled substance or the preparation, compounding, packaging or labeling of a narcotic or dangerous drug:

            (a) By a practitioner as an incident to his or her administering or dispensing of a controlled substance or an imitation controlled substance in the course of his or her professional practice, or

            (b) By a practitioner or his or her authorized agent under his or her supervision, for the purpose of, or as an incident to, research, teaching or chemical analysis and not for sale;

            (24) "Marijuana", all parts of the plant genus Cannabis in any species or form thereof, including, but not limited to Cannabis Sativa L., Cannabis Indica, Cannabis Americana, Cannabis Ruderalis, and Cannabis Gigantea, whether growing or not, the seeds thereof, the resin extracted from any part of the plant; and every compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the plant, its seeds or resin. It does not include the mature stalks of the plant, fiber produced from the stalks, oil or cake made from the seeds of the plant, any other compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture or preparation of the mature stalks (except the resin extracted therefrom), fiber, oil or cake, or the sterilized seed of the plant which is incapable of germination;

            (25) "Methamphetamine precursor drug", any drug containing ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, or any of their salts, optical isomers, or salts of optical isomers;

            (26) "Narcotic drug", any of the following, whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by a combination of extraction and chemical analysis:

            (a) Opium, opiate, and any derivative, of opium or opiate, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of the isomers, esters, ethers, and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation. The term does not include the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;

            (b) Coca leaves, but not including extracts of coca leaves from which cocaine, ecgonine, and derivatives of ecgonine or their salts have been removed;

            (c) Cocaine or any salt, isomer, or salt of isomer thereof;

            (d) Ecgonine, or any derivative, salt, isomer, or salt of isomer thereof;

            (e) Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any quantity of any substance referred to in paragraphs (a) to (d) of this subdivision;

            (27) "Official written order", an order written on a form provided for that purpose by the United States Commissioner of Narcotics, under any laws of the United States making provision therefor, if such order forms are authorized and required by federal law, and if no such order form is provided, then on an official form provided for that purpose by the department of health and senior services;

            (28) "Opiate", any substance having an addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability. The term includes its racemic and levorotatory forms. It does not include, unless specifically controlled under section 195.017, the dextrorotatory isomer of 3-methoxy-n-methyl-morphinan and its salts (dextromethorphan);

            (29) "Opium poppy", the plant of the species Papaver somniferum L., except its seeds;

            (30) "Over-the-counter sale", a retail sale licensed pursuant to chapter 144 of a drug other than a controlled substance;

            (31) "Person", an individual, corporation, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, partnership, joint venture, association, or any other legal or commercial entity;

            (32) "Pharmacist", a licensed pharmacist as defined by the laws of this state, and where the context so requires, the owner of a store or other place of business where controlled substances are compounded or dispensed by a licensed pharmacist; but nothing in [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter shall be construed as conferring on a person who is not registered nor licensed as a pharmacist any authority, right or privilege that is not granted to him by the pharmacy laws of this state;

            (33) "Poppy straw", all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after mowing;

            (34) "Possessed" or "possessing a controlled substance", a person, with the knowledge of the presence and nature of a substance, has actual or constructive possession of the substance. A person has actual possession if he has the substance on his or her person or within easy reach and convenient control. A person who, although not in actual possession, has the power and the intention at a given time to exercise dominion or control over the substance either directly or through another person or persons is in constructive possession of it. Possession may also be sole or joint. If one person alone has possession of a substance possession is sole. If two or more persons share possession of a substance, possession is joint;

            (35) "Practitioner", a physician, dentist, optometrist, podiatrist, veterinarian, scientific investigator, pharmacy, hospital or other person licensed, registered or otherwise permitted by this state to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to or administer or to use in teaching or chemical analysis, a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research in this state, or a pharmacy, hospital or other institution licensed, registered, or otherwise permitted to distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to or administer a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research;

            (36) "Production", includes the manufacture, planting, cultivation, growing, or harvesting of drug paraphernalia or of a controlled substance or an imitation controlled substance;

            (37) "Registry number", the number assigned to each person registered under the federal controlled substances laws;

            (38) "Sale", includes barter, exchange, or gift, or offer therefor, and each such transaction made by any person, whether as principal, proprietor, agent, servant or employee;

            (39) "State" when applied to a part of the United States, includes any state, district, commonwealth, territory, insular possession thereof, and any area subject to the legal authority of the United States of America;

            (40) "Synthetic cannabinoid"[,] includes unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any natural or synthetic material, compound, mixture, or preparation that contains any quantity of a substance that is a cannabinoid receptor agonist, including but not limited to any substance listed in paragraph (ll) of subdivision (4) of subsection 2 of section 195.017 and any analogues[,] ; homologues; isomers, whether optical, positional, or geometric; esters; ethers; salts; and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, whenever the existence of the isomers, esters, ethers, or salts is possible within the specific chemical designation, however, it shall not include any approved pharmaceutical authorized by the United States Food and Drug Administration;

            (41) "Ultimate user", a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance or an imitation controlled substance for his or her own use or for the use of a member of his or her household or for administering to an animal owned by him or by a member of his or her household;

            (42) "Wholesaler", a person who supplies drug paraphernalia or controlled substances or imitation controlled substances that he himself has not produced or prepared, on official written orders, but not on prescriptions.

            195.015. 1. The department of health and senior services shall administer [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter and may add substances to the schedules after public notice and hearing. In making a determination regarding a substance, the department of health and senior services shall consider the following:

            (1) The actual or relative potential for abuse;

            (2) The scientific evidence of its pharmacological effect, if known;

            (3) The state of current scientific knowledge regarding the substance;

            (4) The history and current pattern of abuse;

            (5) The scope, duration, and significance of abuse;

            (6) The risk to the public health;

            (7) The potential of the substance to produce psychic or physiological dependence liability; and

            (8) Whether the substance is an immediate precursor of a substance already controlled under [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter.

            2. After considering the factors enumerated in subsection 1 of this section the department of health and senior services shall make findings with respect thereto and issue a rule controlling the substance if it finds the substance has a potential for abuse.

            3. If the department of health and senior services designates a substance as an immediate precursor, substances which are precursors of the controlled precursor shall not be subject to control solely because they are precursors of the controlled precursor.

            4. If any substance is designated, rescheduled, or deleted as a controlled substance under federal law and notice thereof is given to the department of health and senior services, the department of health and senior services shall similarly control the substance under [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter after the expiration of thirty days from publication in the federal register of a final order designating a substance as a controlled substance or rescheduling or deleting a substance, unless within that thirty-day period, the department of health and senior services objects to inclusion, rescheduling, or deletion. In that case, the department of health and senior services shall publish the reasons for objection and afford all interested parties an opportunity to be heard. At the conclusion of the hearing, the department of health and senior services shall publish its decision, which shall be final unless altered by statute. Upon publication of objection to inclusion, rescheduling or deletion under [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter by the department of health and senior services, control under [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter is stayed as to the substance in question until the department of health and senior services publishes its decision.

            5. The department of health and senior services shall exclude any nonnarcotic substance from a schedule if such substance may, under the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act and the law of this state, be lawfully sold over the counter without a prescription.

            6. The department of health and senior services shall prepare a list of all drugs falling within the purview of controlled substances. Upon preparation, a copy of the list shall be filed in the office of the secretary of state.

            195.016. The controlled substances listed or to be listed in the schedules in [sections 195.005 to 195.425] section 195.017 are included by whatever official, common, usual, chemical, or trade name designated.

            195.017. 1. The department of health and senior services shall place a substance in Schedule I if it finds that the substance:

            (1) Has high potential for abuse; and

            (2) Has no accepted medical use in treatment in the United States or lacks accepted safety for use in treatment under medical supervision.

            2. Schedule I:

            (1) The controlled substances listed in this subsection are included in Schedule I;

            (2) Any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, esters, and ethers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation:

            (a) Acetyl-alpha-methylfentanyl;

            (b) Acetylmethadol;

            (c) Allylprodine;

            (d) Alphacetylmethadol;

            (e) Alphameprodine;

            (f) Alphamethadol;

            (g) Alpha-methylfentanyl;

            (h) Alpha-methylthiofentanyl;

            (i) Benzethidine;

            (j) Betacetylmethadol;

            (k) Beta-hydroxyfentanyl;

            (l) Beta-hydroxy-3-methylfentanyl;

            (m) Betameprodine;

            (n) Betamethadol;

            (o) Betaprodine;

            (p) Clonitazene;

            (q) Dextromoramide;

            (r) Diampromide;

            (s) Diethylthiambutene;

            (t) Difenoxin;

            (u) Dimenoxadol;

            (v) Dimepheptanol;

            (w) Dimethylthiambutene;

            (x) Dioxaphetyl butyrate;

            (y) Dipipanone;

            (z) Ethylmethylthiambutene;

            (aa) Etonitazene;

            (bb) Etoxeridine;

            (cc) Furethidine;

            (dd) Hydroxypethidine;

            (ee) Ketobemidone;

            (ff) Levomoramide;

            (gg) Levophenacylmorphan;

            (hh) 3-Methylfentanyl;

            (ii) 3-Methylthiofentanyl;

            (jj) Morpheridine;

            (kk) MPPP;

            (ll) Noracymethadol;

            (mm) Norlevorphanol;

            (nn) Normethadone;

            (oo) Norpipanone;

            (pp) Para-fluorofentanyl;

            (qq) PEPAP;

            (rr) Phenadoxone;

            (ss) Phenampromide;

            (tt) Phenomorphan;

            (uu) Phenoperidine;

            (vv) Piritramide;

            (ww) Proheptazine;

            (xx) Properidine;

            (yy) Propiram;

            (zz) Racemoramide;

            (aaa) Thiofentanyl;

            (bbb) Tilidine;

            (ccc) Trimeperidine;

            (3) Any of the following opium derivatives, their salts, isomers and salts of isomers unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

            (a) Acetorphine;

            (b) Acetyldihydrocodeine;

            (c) Benzylmorphine;

            (d) Codeine methylbromide;

            (e) Codeine-N-Oxide;

            (f) Cyprenorphine;

            (g) Desomorphine;

            (h) Dihydromorphine;

            (i) Drotebanol;

            (j) Etorphine (except hydrochloride salt);

            (k) Heroin;

            (l) Hydromorphinol;

            (m) Methyldesorphine;

            (n) Methyldihydromorphine;

            (o) Morphine methylbromide;

            (p) Morphine methylsulfonate;

            (q) Morphine-N-Oxide;

            (r) Myrophine;

            (s) Nicocodeine;

            (t) Nicomorphine;

            (u) Normorphine;

            (v) Pholcodine;

            (w) Thebacon;

            (4) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity of the following hallucinogenic substances, their salts, isomers and salts of isomers, unless specifically excepted, whenever the existence of these salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

            (a) 4-bromo-2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine;

            (b) 4-bromo-2, 5-dimethoxyphenethylamine;

            (c) 2,5-dimethoxyamphetamine;

            (d) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-ethylamphetamine;

            (e) 2,5-dimethoxy-4-(n)-propylthiophenethylamine;

            (f) 4-methoxyamphetamine;

            (g) 5-methoxy-3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine;

            (h) 4-methyl-2, 5-dimethoxyamphetamine;

            (i) 3,4-methylenedioxyamphetamine;

            (j) 3,4-methylenedioxymethamphetamine;

            (k) 3,4-methylenedioxy-N-ethylamphetamine;

            (l) N-hydroxy-3, 4-methylenedioxyamphetamine;

            (m) 3,4,5-trimethoxyamphetamine;

            (n) 5-MeO-DMT or 5-methoxy-N,N-dimethyltryptamine, its isomers, salts, and salts of isomers;

            (o) Alpha-ethyltryptamine;

            (p) Alpha-methyltryptamine;

            (q) Bufotenine;

            (r) Diethyltryptamine;

            (s) Dimethyltryptamine;

            (t) 5-methoxy-N,N-diisopropyltryptamine;

            (u) Ibogaine;

            (v) Lysergic acid diethylamide;

            (w) Marijuana or marihuana;

            (x) Mescaline;

            (y) Parahexyl;

            (z) Peyote, to include all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as Lophophora Williamsil Lemaire, whether growing or not; the seeds thereof; any extract from any part of such plant; and every compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture or preparation of the plant, its seed or extracts;

            (aa) N-ethyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

            (bb) N-methyl-3-piperidyl benzilate;

            (cc) Psilocybin;

            (dd) Psilocyn;

            (ee) Tetrahydrocannabinols naturally contained in a plant of the genus Cannabis (cannabis plant), as well as synthetic equivalents of the substances contained in the cannabis plant, or in the resinous extractives of such plant, or synthetic substances, derivatives, and their isomers with similar chemical structure and pharmacological activity to those substances contained in the plant, such as the following:

            a. 1 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers;

            b. 6 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers;

            c. 3,4 cis or trans tetrahydrocannabinol, and their optical isomers;

            d. Any compounds of these structures, regardless of numerical designation of atomic positions covered;

            (ff) Ethylamine analog of phencyclidine;

            (gg) Pyrrolidine analog of phencyclidine;

            (hh) Thiophene analog of phencyclidine;

            (ii) 1-[1-(2-thienyl)cyclohexyl]pyrrolidine;

            (jj) Salvia divinorum;

            (kk) Salvinorin A;

            (ll) Synthetic cannabinoids:

            a. Any compound structurally derived from 3-(1-naphthoyl)indole or 1H-indol-3-yl-(1-naphthyl)methane by substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent. Including, but not limited to:

            (i) JWH-007, or 1-pentyl-2-methyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole;

            (ii) JWH-015, or 1-propyl-2-methyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole;

            (iii) JWH-018, or 1-pentyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole;

            (iv) JWH-019, or 1-hexyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole;

            (v) JWH-073, or 1-butyl-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole;

            (vi) JWH-081, or 1-pentyl-3-(4-methoxy-1-naphthoyl)indole;

            (vii) JWH-098, or 1-pentyl-2-methyl-3-(4-methoxy-1-naphthoyl)indole;

            (viii) JWH-122, or 1-pentyl-3-(4-methyl-1-naphthoyl)indole;

            (ix) JWH-164, or 1-pentyl-3-(7-methoxy-1-naphthoyl)indole;

            (x) JWH-200, or 1-(2-(4-(morpholinyl)ethyl))-3-(1-naphthoyl)indole;

            (xi) JWH-210, or 1-pentyl-3-(4-ethyl-1-naphthoyl)indole;

            (xii) JWH-398, or 1-pentyl-3-(4-chloro-1-naphthoyl)indole;

            b. Any compound structurally derived from 3-(1-naphthoyl)pyrrole by substitution at the nitrogen atom of the pyrrole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further substituted in the pyrrole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent;

            c. Any compound structurally derived from 1-(1-naphthylmethyl)indene by substitution at the 3-position of the indene ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further substituted in the indene ring to any extent, whether or not substituted in the naphthyl ring to any extent;

            d. Any compound structurally derived from 3-phenylacetylindole by substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring with alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent, whether or not substituted in the phenyl ring to any extent. Including, but not limited to:

            (i) JWH-201, or 1-pentyl-3-(4-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole;

            (ii) JWH-203, or 1-pentyl-3-(2-chlorophenylacetyl)indole;

            (iii) JWH-250, or 1-pentyl-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole;

            (iv) JWH-251, or 1-pentyl-3-(2-methylphenylacetyl)indole;

            (v) RCS-8, or 1-(2-cyclohexylethyl)-3-(2-methoxyphenylacetyl)indole;

            e. Any compound structurally derived from 2-(3-hydroxycyclohexyl)phenol by substitution at the 5-position of the phenolic ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not substituted in the cyclohexyl ring to any extent. Including, but not limited to:

            (i) CP 47, 497 & homologues, or 2-[(1R,3S)-3- hydroxycyclohexyl]-5-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)phenol), where side chain n=5, and homologues where side chain n-4,6, or 7;

            f. Any compound containing a 3-(benzoyl)indole structure with substitution at the nitrogen atom of the indole ring by alkyl, haloalkyl, alkenyl, cycloalkylmethyl, cycloalkylethyl, 1-(N-methyl-2-piperidinyl)methyl or 2-(4-morpholinyl)ethyl group, whether or not further substituted in the indole ring to any extent and whether or not substituted in the phenyl ring to any extent. Including, but not limited to:

            (i) AM-694, or 1-(5-fluoropentyl)-3-(2-iodobenzoyl)indole;

            (ii) RCS-4, or 1-pentyl-3-(4-methoxybenzoyl)indole;

            g. CP 50,556-1, or [(6S,6aR,9R,10aR)-9-hydroxy-6-methyl-3-[(2R)-5-phenylpentan-2-yl]oxy-5,6,6a ,7,8,9,10,10a-octahydrophenanthridin-1-yl] acetate;

            h. HU-210, or (6aR,10aR)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl)-6a,7,10,10 a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol;

            i. HU-211, or Dexanabinol,(6aS,10aS)-9-(hydroxymethyl)-6,6-dimethyl-3-(2-methyloctan-2-yl )-6a,7,10,10a-tetrahydrobenzo[c]chromen-1-ol;

            j. CP 50,556-1, or [(6S,6aR,9R,10aR)-9-hydroxy-6-methyl-3-[(2R)-5-phenylpentan-2-yl]oxy-5,6,6a ,7,8,9,10,10a-octahydrophenanthridin-1-yl] acetate;

            k. Dimethylheptylpyran, or DMHP;

            (5) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including their salts, isomers and salts of isomers whenever the existence of these salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

            (a) Gamma-hydroxybutyric acid;

            (b) Mecloqualone;

            (c) Methaqualone;

            (6) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including their salts, isomers and salts of isomers:

            (a) Aminorex;

            (b) N-benzylpiperazine;

            (c) Cathinone;

            (d) Fenethylline;

            (e) 3-Fluoromethcathinone;

            (f) 4-Fluoromethcathinone;

            (g) Mephedrone, or 4-methylmethcathinone;

            (h) Methcathinone;

            (i) 4-methoxymethcathinone;

            (j) (+,-)cis-4-methylaminorex ((+,-)cis-4,5-dihydro-4-methyl-5-phenyl-2-oxazolamine);

            (k) Methylenedioxypyrovalerone, MDPV, or (1-(1,3-Benzodioxol-5-yl)-2-(1-pyrrolidinyl)-1-pentanone;

            (l) Methylone, or 3,4-Methylenedioxymethcathinone;

            (m) 4-Methyl-alpha-pyrrolidinobutiophenone, or MPBP;

            (n) N-ethylamphetamine;

            (o) N,N-dimethylamphetamine;

            (7) A temporary listing of substances subject to emergency scheduling under federal law shall include any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances:

            (a) N-(1-benzyl-4-piperidyl)-N phenylpropanamide (benzylfentanyl), its optical isomers, salts and salts of isomers;

            (b) N-(1-(2-thienyl)methyl-4-piperidyl)-N-phenylpropanamide (thenylfentanyl), its optical isomers, salts and salts of isomers;

            (8) Khat, to include all parts of the plant presently classified botanically as catha edulis, whether growing or not; the seeds thereof; any extract from any part of such plant; and every compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the plant, its seed or extracts.             3. The department of health and senior services shall place a substance in Schedule II if it finds that:

            (1) The substance has high potential for abuse;

            (2) The substance has currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States, or currently accepted medical use with severe restrictions; and

            (3) The abuse of the substance may lead to severe psychic or physical dependence.

            4. The controlled substances listed in this subsection are included in Schedule II:

            (1) Any of the following substances whether produced directly or indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of chemical synthesis, or by combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:

            (a) Opium and opiate and any salt, compound, derivative or preparation of opium or opiate, excluding apomorphine, thebaine-derived butorphanol, dextrorphan, nalbuphine, nalmefene, naloxone and naltrexone, and their respective salts but including the following:

            a. Raw opium;

            b. Opium extracts;

            c. Opium fluid;

            d. Powdered opium;

            e. Granulated opium;

            f. Tincture of opium;

            g. Codeine;

            h. Ethylmorphine;

            i. Etorphine hydrochloride;

            j. Hydrocodone;

            k. Hydromorphone;

            l. Metopon;

            m. Morphine;

            n. Oxycodone;

            o. Oxymorphone;

            p. Thebaine;

            (b) Any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of the substances referred to in this subdivision, but not including the isoquinoline alkaloids of opium;

            (c) Opium poppy and poppy straw;

            (d) Coca leaves and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation of coca leaves, and any salt, compound, derivative, or preparation thereof which is chemically equivalent or identical with any of these substances, but not including decocainized coca leaves or extractions which do not contain cocaine or ecgonine;

            (e) Concentrate of poppy straw (the crude extract of poppy straw in either liquid, solid or powder form which contains the phenanthrene alkaloids of the opium poppy);

            (2) Any of the following opiates, including their isomers, esters, ethers, salts, and salts of isomers, whenever the existence of these isomers, esters, ethers and salts is possible within the specific chemical designation, dextrorphan and levopropoxyphene excepted:

            (a) Alfentanil;

            (b) Alphaprodine;

            (c) Anileridine;

            (d) Bezitramide;

            (e) Bulk dextropropoxyphene;

            (f) Carfentanil;

            (g) Dihydrocodeine;

            (h) Diphenoxylate;

            (i) Fentanyl;

            (j) Isomethadone;

            (k) Levo-alphacetylmethadol;

            (l) Levomethorphan;

            (m) Levorphanol;

            (n) Metazocine;

            (o) Methadone;

            (p) Meperidine;

            (q) Methadone-Intermediate, 4-cyano-2-dimethylamino-4, 4-diphenylbutane;

            (r) Moramide-Intermediate, 2-methyl-3-morpholino-1, 1-diphenylpropane--carboxylic acid;

            (s) Pethidine (meperidine);

            (t) Pethidine-Intermediate-A, 4-cyano-1-methyl-4-phenylpiperidine;

            (u) Pethidine-Intermediate-B, ethyl-4-phenylpiperidine-4-carboxylate;

            (v) Pethidine-Intermediate-C, 1-methyl-4-phenylpiperdine-4-carboxylic acid;

            (w) Phenazocine;

            (x) Piminodine;

            (y) Racemethorphan;

            (z) Racemorphan;

            (aa) Remifentanil;

            (bb) Sufentanil;

            (cc) Tapentadol;

            (3) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system:

            (a) Amphetamine, its salts, optical isomers, and salts of its optical isomers;

            (b) Lisdexamfetamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of its isomers;

            (c) Methamphetamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of its isomers;

            (d) Phenmetrazine and its salts;

            (e) Methylphenidate;

            (4) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of those salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

            (a) Amobarbital;

            (b) Glutethimide;

            (c) Pentobarbital;

            (d) Phencyclidine;

            (e) Secobarbital;

            (5) Any material or compound which contains any quantity of nabilone;

            (6) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances:

            (a) Immediate precursor to amphetamine and methamphetamine: Phenylacetone;

            (b) Immediate precursors to phencyclidine (PCP):

            a. 1-phenylcyclohexylamine;

            b. 1-piperidinocyclohexanecarbonitrile (PCC);

            (7) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following alkyl nitrites:

            (a) Amyl nitrite;

            (b) Butyl nitrite.

            5. The department of health and senior services shall place a substance in Schedule III if it finds that:

            (1) The substance has a potential for abuse less than the substances listed in Schedules I and II;

            (2) The substance has currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States; and

            (3) Abuse of the substance may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence.

            6. The controlled substances listed in this subsection are included in Schedule III:

            (1) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a potential for abuse associated with a stimulant effect on the central nervous system:

            (a) Benzphetamine;

            (b) Chlorphentermine;

            (c) Clortermine;

            (d) Phendimetrazine;

            (2) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity or salt of the following substances or salts having a depressant effect on the central nervous system:

            (a) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity or salt of the following substances combined with one or more active medicinal ingredients:

            a. Amobarbital;

            b. Secobarbital;

            c. Pentobarbital;

            (b) Any suppository dosage form containing any quantity or salt of the following:

            a. Amobarbital;

            b. Secobarbital;

            c. Pentobarbital;

            (c) Any substance which contains any quantity of a derivative of barbituric acid or its salt;

            (d) Chlorhexadol;

            (e) Embutramide;

            (f) Gamma hydroxybutyric acid and its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers contained in a drug product for which an application has been approved under Section 505 of the federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act;

            (g) Ketamine, its salts, isomers, and salts of isomers;

            (h) Lysergic acid;

            (i) Lysergic acid amide;

            (j) Methyprylon;

            (k) Sulfondiethylmethane;

            (l) Sulfonethylmethane;

            (m) Sulfonmethane;

            (n) Tiletamine and zolazepam or any salt thereof;

            (3) Nalorphine;

            (4) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing limited quantities of any of the following narcotic drugs or their salts:

            (a) Not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per one hundred milliliters or not more than ninety milligrams per dosage unit, with an equal or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium;

            (b) Not more than 1.8 grams of codeine per one hundred milliliters or not more than ninety milligrams per dosage unit with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

            (c) Not more than three hundred milligrams of hydrocodone per one hundred milliliters or not more than fifteen milligrams per dosage unit, with a fourfold or greater quantity of an isoquinoline alkaloid of opium;

            (d) Not more than three hundred milligrams of hydrocodone per one hundred milliliters or not more than fifteen milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

            (e) Not more than 1.8 grams of dihydrocodeine per one hundred milliliters or not more than ninety milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

            (f) Not more than three hundred milligrams of ethylmorphine per one hundred milliliters or not more than fifteen milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

            (g) Not more than five hundred milligrams of opium per one hundred milliliters or per one hundred grams or not more than twenty-five milligrams per dosage unit, with one or more active nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

            (h) Not more than fifty milligrams of morphine per one hundred milliliters or per one hundred grams, with one or more active, nonnarcotic ingredients in recognized therapeutic amounts;

            (5) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs or their salts, as set forth in subdivision (6) of this subsection; buprenorphine;

            (6) Anabolic steroids. Any drug or hormonal substance, chemically and pharmacologically related to testosterone (other than estrogens, progestins, corticosteroids, and dehydroepiandrosterone) that promotes muscle growth, except an anabolic steroid which is expressly intended for administration through implants to cattle or other nonhuman species and which has been approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for that administration. If any person prescribes, dispenses, or distributes such steroid for human use, such person shall be considered to have prescribed, dispensed, or distributed an anabolic steroid within the meaning of this subdivision. Unless specifically excepted or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing any quantity of the following substances, including its salts, esters and ethers:

            (a) 3ß,17-dihydroxy-5a-androstane;

            (b) 3a,17ß-dihydroxy-5a-androstane;

            (c) 5a-androstan-3,17-dione;

            (d) 1-androstenediol (3ß,17ß-dihydroxy-5a-androst-1-ene);

            (e) 1-androstenediol (3a,17ß-dihydroxy-5a-androst-1-ene);

            (f) 4-androstenediol (3ß,17ß-dihydroxy-androst-4-ene);

            (g) 5-androstenediol (3ß,17ß-dihydroxy-androst-5-ene);

            (h) 1-androstenedione ([5a]-androst-1-en-3,17-dione);

            (i) 4-androstenedione (androst-4-en-3,17-dione);

            (j) 5-androstenedione (androst-5-en-3,17-dione);

            (k) Bolasterone (7a, 17a-dimethyl-17ß-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);

            (l) Boldenone (17ß-hydroxyandrost-1,4,-diene-3-one);

            (m) Boldione;

            (n) Calusterone (7ß, 17a-dimethyl-17ß-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);

            (o) Clostebol (4-chloro-17ß-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);

            (p) Dehydrochloromethyltestosterone (4-chloro-17ß-hydroxy-17a-methyl-androst-1,4-dien-3-one);

            (q) Desoxymethyltestosterone;

            (r) Δ1-dihydrotestosterone (a.k.a. '1-testosterone')(17β-hydroxy-5α-androst-1-en-3-one);

            (s) 4-dihydrotestosterone (17ß-hydroxy-androstan-3-one);

            (t) Drostanolone (17ß-hydroxy-2a-methyl-5a-androstan-3-one);

            (u) Ethylestrenol (17a-ethyl-17ß-hydroxyestr-4-ene);

            (v) Fluoxymesterone (9-fluoro-17a-methyl-11ß,17ß-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);

            (w) Formebolone (2-formyl-17a-methyl-11a,17ß-dihydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one);

            (x) Furazabol (17a-methyl-17ß-hydroxyandrostano[2,3-c]-furazan);

            (y) 13ß-ethyl-17ß-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one;

            (z) 4-hydroxytestosterone (4,17ß-dihydroxy-androst-4-en-3-one);

            (aa) 4-hydroxy-19-nortestosterone (4,17ß-dihydroxy-estr-4-en-3-one);

            (bb) Mestanolone (17a-methyl-17ß-hydroxy-5-androstan-3-one);

            (cc) Mesterolone (1amethyl-17ß-hydroxy-[5a]-androstan-3-one);

            (dd) Methandienone (17a-methyl-17ß-hydroxyandrost-1,4-dien-3-one);

            (ee) Methandriol (17a-methyl-3ß,17ß-dihydroxyandrost-5-ene);

            (ff) Methenolone (1-methyl-17ß-hydroxy-5a-androst-1-en-3-one);

            (gg) 17a-methyl-3ß,17ß-dihydroxy-5a-androstane);

            (hh) 17a-methyl-3a,17ß-dihydroxy-5a-androstane);

            (ii) 17a-methyl-3ß,17ß-dihydroxyandrost-4-ene;

            (jj) 17a-methyl-4-hydroxynandrolone (17a-methyl-4-hydroxy-17ß-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);

            (kk) Methyldienolone (17a-methyl-17ß-hydroxyestra-4,9(10)-dien-3-one);

            (ll) Methyltrienolone (17a-methyl-17ß-hydroxyestra-4,9-11-trien-3-one);

            (mm) Methyltestosterone (17a-methyl-17ß-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);

            (nn) Mibolerone (7a,17a-dimethyl-17ß-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);

            (oo) 17α-methyl-Δ1-dihydrotestosterone (17bβ-hydroxy-17α-methyl-5α-androst-1-en-3-one) (a.k.a. '17-α-methyl-1-testosterone');

            (pp) Nandrolone (17ß-hydroxyestr-4-ene-3-one);

            (qq) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3ß,17ß-dihydroxyestr-4-ene);

            (rr) 19-nor-4-androstenediol (3a,17ß-dihydroxyestr-4-ene);

            (ss) 19-nor-4,9(10)-androstadienedione;

            (tt) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3ß,17ß-dihydroxyestr-5-ene);

            (uu) 19-nor-5-androstenediol (3a,17ß-dihydroxyestr-5-ene);

            (vv) 19-nor-4-androstenedione (estr-4-en-3,17-dione);

            (ww) 19-nor-5-androstenedione (estr-5-en-3,17-dione);

            (xx) Norbolethone (13ß,17a-diethyl-17ß-hydroxygon-4-en-3-one);

            (yy) Norclostebol (4-chloro-17ß-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);

            (zz) Norethandrolone (17a-ethyl-17ß-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);

            (aaa) Normethandrolone (17a-methyl-17ß-hydroxyestr-4-en-3-one);

            (bbb) Oxandrolone (17a-methyl-17ß-hydroxy-2-oxa-[5a]-androstan-3-one);

            (ccc) Oxymesterone (17a-methyl-4,17ß-dihydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);

            (ddd) Oxymethalone (17a-methyl-2-hydroxymethylene-17ß-hydroxy-[5a]-androstan-3-one);

            (eee) Stanozolol (17a-methyl-17ß-hydroxy-[5a]-androst-2-eno[3,2-c]-pyrazole);

            (fff) Stenbolone (17ß-hydroxy-2-methyl-[5a]-androst-1-en-3-one);

            (ggg) Testolactone (13-hydroxy-3-oxo-13,17-secoandrosta-1,4-dien-17-oic acid lactone);

            (hhh) Testosterone (17ß-hydroxyandrost-4-en-3-one);

            (iii) Tetrahydrogestrinone (13ß,17a-diethyl-17ß-hydroxygon-4,9,11-trien-3-one);

            (jjj) Trenbolone (17ß-hydroxyestr-4,9,11-trien-3-one);

            (kkk) Any salt, ester, or ether of a drug or substance described or listed in this subdivision, except an anabolic steroid which is expressly intended for administration through implants to cattle or other nonhuman species and which has been approved by the Secretary of Health and Human Services for that administration;

            (7) Dronabinol (synthetic) in sesame oil and encapsulated in a soft gelatin capsule in a United States Food and Drug Administration approved drug product;

            (8) The department of health and senior services may except by rule any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any stimulant or depressant substance listed in subdivisions (1) and (2) of this subsection from the application of all or any part of sections 195.010 to 195.320 if the compound, mixture, or preparation contains one or more active medicinal ingredients not having a stimulant or depressant effect on the central nervous system, and if the admixtures are included therein in combinations, quantity, proportion, or concentration that vitiate the potential for abuse of the substances which have a stimulant or depressant effect on the central nervous system.

            7. The department of health and senior services shall place a substance in Schedule IV if it finds that:

            (1) The substance has a low potential for abuse relative to substances in Schedule III;

            (2) The substance has currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States; and

            (3) Abuse of the substance may lead to limited physical dependence or psychological dependence relative to the substances in Schedule III.

            8. The controlled substances listed in this subsection are included in Schedule IV:

            (1) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as set forth below:

            (a) Not more than one milligram of difenoxin and not less than twenty-five micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit;

            (b) Dextropropoxyphene (alpha-(+)-4-dimethylamino-1, 2-diphenyl-3-methyl-2- propionoxybutane);

            (c) Any of the following limited quantities of narcotic drugs or their salts, which shall include one or more nonnarcotic active medicinal ingredients in sufficient proportion to confer upon the compound, mixture or preparation valuable medicinal qualities other than those possessed by the narcotic drug alone:

            a. Not more than two hundred milligrams of codeine per one hundred milliliters or per one hundred grams;

            b. Not more than one hundred milligrams of dihydrocodeine per one hundred milliliters or per one hundred grams;

            c. Not more than one hundred milligrams of ethylmorphine per one hundred milliliters or per one hundred grams;

            (2) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing any quantity of the following substances, including their salts, isomers, and salts of isomers whenever the existence of those salts, isomers, and salts of isomers is possible within the specific chemical designation:

            (a) Alprazolam;

            (b) Barbital;

            (c) Bromazepam;

            (d) Camazepam;

            (e) Chloral betaine;

            (f) Chloral hydrate;

            (g) Chlordiazepoxide;

            (h) Clobazam;

            (i) Clonazepam;

            (j) Clorazepate;

            (k) Clotiazepam;

            (l) Cloxazolam;

            (m) Delorazepam;

            (n) Diazepam;

            (o) Dichloralphenazone;

            (p) Estazolam;

            (q) Ethchlorvynol;

            (r) Ethinamate;

            (s) Ethyl loflazepate;

            (t) Fludiazepam;

            (u) Flunitrazepam;

            (v) Flurazepam;

            (w) Fospropofol;

            (x) Halazepam;

            (y) Haloxazolam;

            (z) Ketazolam;

            (aa) Loprazolam;

            (bb) Lorazepam;

            (cc) Lormetazepam;

            (dd) Mebutamate;

            (ee) Medazepam;

            (ff) Meprobamate;

            (gg) Methohexital;

            (hh) Methylphenobarbital (mephobarbital);

            (ii) Midazolam;

            (jj) Nimetazepam;

            (kk) Nitrazepam;

            (ll) Nordiazepam;

            (mm) Oxazepam;

            (nn) Oxazolam;

            (oo) Paraldehyde;

            (pp) Petrichloral;

            (qq) Phenobarbital;

            (rr) Pinazepam;

            (ss) Prazepam;

            (tt) Quazepam;

            (uu) Temazepam;

            (vv) Tetrazepam;

            (ww) Triazolam;

            (xx) Zaleplon;

            (yy) Zolpidem;

            (zz) Zopiclone;

            (3) Any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substance including its salts, isomers and salts of isomers whenever the existence of such salts, isomers and salts of isomers is possible: fenfluramine;

            (4) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing any quantity of the following substances having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system, including their salts, isomers and salts of isomers:

            (a) Cathine ((+)-norpseudoephedrine);

            (b) Diethylpropion;

            (c) Fencamfamin;

            (d) Fenproporex;

            (e) Mazindol;

            (f) Mefenorex;

            (g) Modafinil;

            (h) Pemoline, including organometallic complexes and chelates thereof;

            (i) Phentermine;

            (j) Pipradrol;

            (k) Sibutramine;

            (l) SPA ((-)-1-dimethyamino-1,2-diphenylethane);

            (5) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation containing any quantity of the following substance, including its salts:

            (a) butorphanol;

            (b) pentazocine;

            (6) Ephedrine, its salts, optical isomers and salts of optical isomers, when the substance is the only active medicinal ingredient;

            (7) The department of health and senior services may except by rule any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any depressant substance listed in subdivision (1) of this subsection from the application of all or any part of sections 195.010 to 195.320 if the compound, mixture, or preparation contains one or more active medicinal ingredients not having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, and if the admixtures are included therein in combinations, quantity, proportion, or concentration that vitiate the potential for abuse of the substances which have a depressant effect on the central nervous system.

            9. The department of health and senior services shall place a substance in Schedule V if it finds that:

            (1) The substance has low potential for abuse relative to the controlled substances listed in Schedule IV;

            (2) The substance has currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States; and

            (3) The substance has limited physical dependence or psychological dependence liability relative to the controlled substances listed in Schedule IV.

            10. The controlled substances listed in this subsection are included in Schedule V:

            (1) Any compound, mixture or preparation containing any of the following narcotic drugs or their salts calculated as the free anhydrous base or alkaloid, in limited quantities as set forth below, which also contains one or more nonnarcotic active medicinal ingredients in sufficient proportion to confer upon the compound, mixture or preparation valuable medicinal qualities other than those possessed by the narcotic drug alone:

            (a) Not more than two and five-tenths milligrams of diphenoxylate and not less than twenty-five micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit;

            (b) Not more than one hundred milligrams of opium per one hundred milliliters or per one hundred grams;

            (c) Not more than five-tenths milligram of difenoxin and not less than twenty-five micrograms of atropine sulfate per dosage unit;

            (2) Any material, compound, mixture or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substance having a stimulant effect on the central nervous system including its salts, isomers and salts of isomers: pyrovalerone;

            (3) Any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any detectable quantity of pseudoephedrine or its salts or optical isomers, or salts of optical isomers or any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any detectable quantity of ephedrine or its salts or optical isomers, or salts of optical isomers;

            (4) Unless specifically exempted or excluded or unless listed in another schedule, any material, compound, mixture, or preparation which contains any quantity of the following substances having a depressant effect on the central nervous system, including its salts:

            (a) Lacosamide;

            (b) Pregabalin.

            11. If any compound, mixture, or preparation as specified in subdivision (3) of subsection 10 of this section is dispensed, sold, or distributed in a pharmacy without a prescription:

            (1) All packages of any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any detectable quantity of pseudoephedrine, its salts or optical isomers, or salts of optical isomers or ephedrine, its salts or optical isomers, or salts of optical isomers, shall be offered for sale only from behind a pharmacy counter where the public is not permitted, and only by a registered pharmacist or registered pharmacy technician; and

            (2) Any person purchasing, receiving or otherwise acquiring any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any detectable quantity of pseudoephedrine, its salts or optical isomers, or salts of optical isomers or ephedrine, its salts or optical isomers, or salts of optical isomers shall be at least eighteen years [of age] old; and

            (3) The pharmacist, intern pharmacist, or registered pharmacy technician shall require any person, prior to their purchasing, receiving or otherwise acquiring such compound, mixture, or preparation to furnish suitable photo identification that is issued by a state or the federal government or a document that, with respect to identification, is considered acceptable and showing the date of birth of the person;

            (4) The seller shall deliver the product directly into the custody of the purchaser.

            12. Pharmacists, intern pharmacists, and registered pharmacy technicians shall implement and maintain an electronic log of each transaction. Such log shall include the following information:

            (1) The name, address, and signature of the purchaser;

            (2) The amount of the compound, mixture, or preparation purchased;

            (3) The date and time of each purchase; and

            (4) The name or initials of the pharmacist, intern pharmacist, or registered pharmacy technician who dispensed the compound, mixture, or preparation to the purchaser.

            13. Each pharmacy shall submit information regarding sales of any compound, mixture, or preparation as specified in subdivision (3) of subsection 10 of this section in accordance with transmission methods and frequency established by the department by regulation;

            14. No person shall dispense, sell, purchase, receive, or otherwise acquire quantities greater than those specified in this chapter.

            15. All persons who dispense or offer for sale pseudoephedrine and ephedrine products in a pharmacy shall ensure that all such products are located only behind a pharmacy counter where the public is not permitted.

            16. [Any person who knowingly or recklessly violates] The penalties for a knowing or reckless violation of the provisions of subsections 11 to 15 of this section [is guilty of a class A misdemeanor] are found in section 579.060.

            17. The scheduling of substances specified in subdivision (3) of subsection 10 of this section and subsections 11, 12, 14, and 15 of this section shall not apply to any compounds, mixtures, or preparations that are in liquid or liquid-filled gel capsule form or to any compound, mixture, or preparation specified in subdivision (3) of subsection 10 of this section which must be dispensed, sold, or distributed in a pharmacy pursuant to a prescription.

            18. The manufacturer of a drug product or another interested party may apply with the department of health and senior services for an exemption from this section. The department of health and senior services may grant an exemption by rule from this section if the department finds the drug product is not used in the illegal manufacture of methamphetamine or other controlled or dangerous substances. The department of health and senior services shall rely on reports from law enforcement and law enforcement evidentiary laboratories in determining if the proposed product can be used to manufacture illicit controlled substances.

            19. The department of health and senior services shall revise and republish the schedules annually.

            20. The department of health and senior services shall promulgate rules under chapter 536 regarding the security and storage of Schedule V controlled substances, as described in subdivision (3) of subsection 10 of this section, for distributors as registered by the department of health and senior services.

            21. Logs of transactions required to be kept and maintained by this section and section 195.417 shall create a rebuttable presumption that the person whose name appears in the logs is the person whose transactions are recorded in the logs.

            195.030. 1. The department of health and senior services upon public notice and hearing pursuant to this section and chapter 536 may promulgate rules and charge reasonable fees relating to the registration and control of the manufacture, distribution and dispensing of controlled substances within this state. No rule or portion of a rule promulgated pursuant to the authority of this chapter shall become effective unless it has been promulgated pursuant to the provisions of section 536.024.

            2. No person shall manufacture, compound, mix, cultivate, grow, or by any other process produce or prepare, distribute, dispense or prescribe any controlled substance and no person as a wholesaler shall supply the same, without having first obtained a registration issued by the department of health and senior services in accordance with rules and regulations promulgated by it. No registration shall be granted for a term exceeding three years.

            3. Persons registered by the department of health and senior services pursuant to [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter to manufacture, distribute, or dispense or conduct research with controlled substances are authorized to possess, manufacture, distribute or dispense such substances, including any such activity in the conduct of research, to the extent authorized by their registration and in conformity with other provisions of [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter and chapter 579.

            4. The following persons shall not be required to register and may lawfully possess controlled substances pursuant to [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter:

            (1) An agent or employee, excluding physicians, dentists, optometrists, podiatrists or veterinarians, of any registered manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser of any controlled substance if such agent is acting in the usual course of his or her business or employment;

            (2) A common or contract carrier or warehouseman, or an employee thereof, whose possession of any controlled substance is in the usual course of business or employment;

            (3) An ultimate user or a person in possession of any controlled substance pursuant to a lawful order of a practitioner or in lawful possession of a Schedule V substance.

            5. The department of health and senior services may, by regulation, waive the requirement for registration of certain manufacturers, distributors, or dispensers if it finds it consistent with the public health and safety.

            6. A separate registration shall be required at each principal place of business or professional practice where the applicant manufactures, distributes, or dispenses controlled substances.

            7. The department of health and senior services is authorized to inspect the establishment of a registrant or applicant in accordance with the provisions of [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter.

            195.040. 1. No registration shall be issued under section 195.030 unless and until the applicant therefor has furnished proof satisfactory to the department of health and senior services:

            (1) That the applicant is of good moral character or, if the applicant be an association or corporation, that the managing officers are of good moral character;

            (2) That the applicant is equipped as to land, buildings, and paraphernalia properly to carry on the business described in his or her application.

            2. No registration shall be granted to any person who has within two years been finally adjudicated and found guilty, or entered a plea of guilty or nolo contendere, in a criminal prosecution under the laws of any state or of the United States, for any misdemeanor offense or within seven years for any felony offense related to controlled substances. No registration shall be granted to any person who is abusing controlled substances.

            3. The department of health and senior services shall register an applicant to manufacture, distribute or dispense controlled substances unless it determines that the issuance of that registration would be inconsistent with the public interest. In determining the public interest, the following factors shall be considered:

            (1) Maintenance of effective controls against diversion of controlled substances into other than legitimate medical, scientific, or industrial channels;

            (2) Compliance with applicable state and local law;

            (3) Any convictions of an applicant under any federal or state laws relating to any controlled substance;

            (4) Past experience in the manufacture or distribution of controlled substances and the existence in the applicant's establishment of effective controls against diversion;

            (5) Furnishing by the applicant of false or fraudulent material information in any application filed under [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter;

            (6) Suspension or revocation of the applicant's federal registration to manufacture, distribute or dispense narcotics or controlled dangerous drugs as authorized by federal law; and

            (7) Any other factors relevant to and consistent with the public health and safety.

            4. Registration does not entitle a registrant to manufacture and distribute controlled substances in Schedule I or II other than those specified in the registration.

            5. Practitioners shall be registered to dispense any controlled substance or to conduct research with controlled substances in Schedules II through V if they are authorized to dispense or conduct research under the laws of this state. The department of health and senior services need not require separate registration under [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter for practitioners engaging in research with nonnarcotic substances in Schedules II through V where the registrant is already registered under [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter in another capacity. Practitioners registered under federal law to conduct research with Schedule I substances may conduct research with Schedule I substances within this state upon furnishing the department of health and senior services evidence of that federal registration.

            6. Compliance by manufacturers and distributors with the provisions of federal law respecting registration (excluding fees) shall entitle them to be registered under [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter.

            7. A registration to manufacture, distribute, or dispense a controlled substance may be suspended or revoked by the department of health and senior services upon a finding that the registrant:

            (1) Has furnished false or fraudulent material information in any application filed under [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter;

            (2) Has been convicted of a felony under any state or federal law relating to any controlled substance;

            (3) Has had his or her federal registration to manufacture, distribute or dispense suspended or revoked;

            (4) Has violated any federal controlled substances statute or regulation, or any provision of [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter or chapter 579 or regulation promulgated [pursuant to sections 195.005 to 195.425] under this chapter; or

            (5) Has had the registrant's professional license to practice suspended or revoked.

            8. The department of health and senior services may warn or censure a registrant; limit a registration to particular controlled substances or schedules of controlled substances; limit revocation or suspension of a registration to a particular controlled substance with respect to which grounds for revocation or suspension exist; restrict or limit a registration under such terms and conditions as the department of health and senior services considers appropriate for a period of five years; suspend or revoke a registration for a period not to exceed five years; or deny an application for registration. In any order of revocation, the department of health and senior services may provide that the registrant may not apply for a new registration for a period of time ranging from one to five years following the date of the order of revocation. All stay orders shall toll this time period. Any registration placed under a limitation or restriction by the department of health and senior services shall be termed "under probation".

            9. If the department of health and senior services suspends or revokes a registration, all controlled substances owned or possessed by the registrant at the time of suspension or the effective date of the revocation order may be placed under seal by such agency and held pending final disposition of the case. No disposition may be made of substances under seal until the time for taking an appeal has elapsed or until all appeals have been concluded, unless a court, upon application therefor, orders the sale of perishable substances and the deposit of the proceeds of the sale with the court. Upon a revocation order becoming final, all controlled substances may be forfeited to the state.

            10. The department of health and senior services may, upon review, terminate any restriction or limitation previously imposed upon a registration by the department of health and senior services if the registrant has remained in compliance with the imposed restrictions or limitations and local, state and federal laws since the time the restrictions or limitations were imposed.

            11. The department of health and senior services shall promptly notify the Drug Enforcement Administration, United States Department of Justice, or its successor agency, of all orders suspending or revoking registration and all forfeitures of controlled substances.

            12. If after first providing the registrant an opportunity for an informal conference, the department of health and senior services proposes to deny, suspend, restrict, limit or revoke a registration or refuse a renewal of registration, the department of health and senior services shall serve upon the applicant or registrant written notice of the proposed action to be taken on the application or registration. The notice shall contain a statement of the type of discipline proposed, the basis therefor, the date such action shall go into effect and a statement that the registrant shall have thirty days to request in writing a hearing before the administrative hearing commission. If no written request for a hearing is received by the department of health and senior services within thirty days of the applicant's or registrant's receipt of the notice, the proposed discipline shall take effect thirty-one days from the date the original notice was received by the applicant or registrant. If the registrant or applicant makes a written request for a hearing, the department of health and senior services shall file a complaint with the administrative hearing commission within sixty days of receipt of the written request for a hearing. The complaint shall comply with the laws and regulations for actions brought before the administrative hearing commission. The department of health and senior services may issue letters of censure or warning and may enter into agreements with a registrant or applicant which restrict or limit a registration without formal notice or hearing.

            13. The department of health and senior services may suspend any registration simultaneously with the institution of proceedings under subsection 7 of this section if the department of health and senior services finds that there is imminent danger to the public health or safety which warrants this action. The suspension shall continue in effect until the conclusion of the proceedings, including review thereof, unless sooner withdrawn by the department of health and senior services, dissolved by a court of competent jurisdiction or stayed by the administrative hearing commission.

            195.050. 1. A duly registered manufacturer or wholesaler may sell controlled substances to any of the following persons:

            (1) To a manufacturer, wholesaler, or pharmacy;

            (2) To a physician, dentist, podiatrist or veterinarian;

            (3) To a person in charge of a hospital, but only for use in that hospital;

            (4) To a person in charge of a laboratory, but only for use in that laboratory for scientific and medical purposes.

            2. A duly registered manufacturer or wholesaler may sell controlled substances to any of the following persons:

            (1) On a special written order accompanied by a certificate of exemption, as required by federal laws, to a person in the employ of the United States government or of any state, territorial, district, county, municipal or insular government, purchasing, receiving, possessing, or dispensing controlled substances by reason of his or her official duties;

            (2) To a master of a ship or person in charge of any aircraft upon which no physician is regularly employed, for the actual medical needs of persons on board such ship or aircraft, when not in port; provided, such controlled substances shall be sold to the master of such ship or person in charge of such aircraft only in pursuance of a special order form approved by a commissioned medical officer or acting surgeon of the United States Public Health Service;

            (3) To a person in a foreign country if the provisions of federal laws are complied with.             3. An official written order for any controlled substance listed in Schedules I and II shall be signed in duplicate by the person giving the order or by his or her duly authorized agent. The original shall be presented to the person who sells or dispenses the controlled substance named therein. In event of the acceptance of such order by the person, each party to the transaction shall preserve his or her copy of such order for a period of two years in such a way as to be readily accessible for inspection by any public officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter or chapter 579. It shall be deemed a compliance with this subsection if the parties to the transaction have complied with federal laws, respecting the requirements governing the use of order forms.

            4. Possession of or control of controlled substances obtained as authorized by this section shall be lawful if in the regular course of business, occupation, profession, employment, or duty of the possessor.

            5. A person in charge of a hospital or of a laboratory, or in the employ of this state or of any other state, or of any political subdivision thereof, and a master or other proper officer of a ship or aircraft, who obtains controlled substances under the provisions of this section or otherwise, shall not administer, nor dispense, nor otherwise use such drugs, within this state, except within the scope of his or her employment or official duty, and then only for scientific or medicinal purposes and subject to the provisions of [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter and chapter 579.

            6. Every person registered to manufacture, distribute or dispense controlled substances under [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter shall keep records and inventories of all such drugs in conformance with the record keeping and inventory requirements of federal law, and in accordance with any additional regulations of the department of health and senior services.

            7. Manufacturers and wholesalers shall keep records of all narcotic and controlled substances compounded, mixed, cultivated, grown, or by any other process produced or prepared, and of all controlled substances received and disposed of by them, in accordance with this section.

            8. Apothecaries shall keep records of all controlled substances received and disposed of by them, in accordance with the provisions of this section.

            9. The form of records shall be prescribed by the department of health and senior services.

            195.060. 1. Except as provided in subsection 4 of this section, a pharmacist, in good faith, may sell and dispense controlled substances to any person only upon a prescription of a practitioner as authorized by statute, provided that the controlled substances listed in Schedule V may be sold without prescription in accordance with regulations of the department of health and senior services. All written prescriptions shall be signed by the person prescribing the same. All prescriptions shall be dated on the day when issued and bearing the full name and address of the patient for whom, or of the owner of the animal for which, the drug is prescribed, and the full name, address, and the registry number under the federal controlled substances laws of the person prescribing, if he or she is required by those laws to be so registered. If the prescription is for an animal, it shall state the species of the animal for which the drug is prescribed. The person filling the prescription shall either write the date of filling and his or her own signature on the prescription or retain the date of filling and the identity of the dispenser as electronic prescription information. The prescription or electronic prescription information shall be retained on file by the proprietor of the pharmacy in which it is filled for a period of two years, so as to be readily accessible for inspection by any public officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this law. No prescription for a drug in Schedule I or II shall be filled more than six months after the date prescribed; no prescription for a drug in schedule I or II shall be refilled; no prescription for a drug in Schedule III or IV shall be filled or refilled more than six months after the date of the original prescription or be refilled more than five times unless renewed by the practitioner.

            2. A pharmacist, in good faith, may sell and dispense controlled substances to any person upon a prescription of a practitioner located in another state, provided that the:

            (1) Prescription was issued according to and in compliance with the applicable laws of that state and the United States; and

            (2) Quantity limitations in subsection 2 of section 195.080 apply to prescriptions dispensed to patients located in this state.

            3. The legal owner of any stock of controlled substances in a pharmacy, upon discontinuance of dealing in such drugs, may sell the stock to a manufacturer, wholesaler, or pharmacist, but only on an official written order.

            4. A pharmacist, in good faith, may sell and dispense any Schedule II drug or drugs to any person in emergency situations as defined by rule of the department of health and senior services upon an oral prescription by an authorized practitioner.

             5. Except where a bona fide physician-patient-pharmacist relationship exists, prescriptions for narcotics or hallucinogenic drugs shall not be delivered to or for an ultimate user or agent by mail or other common carrier.

            195.080. 1. Except as otherwise provided in [sections 195.005 to 195.425 specifically provided, sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter and chapter 579, this chapter and chapter 579 shall not apply to the following cases: prescribing, administering, dispensing or selling at retail of liniments, ointments, and other preparations that are susceptible of external use only and that contain controlled substances in such combinations of drugs as to prevent the drugs from being readily extracted from such liniments, ointments, or preparations, except that [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter and chapter 579 shall apply to all liniments, ointments, and other preparations that contain coca leaves in any quantity or combination.

            2. The quantity of Schedule II controlled substances prescribed or dispensed at any one time shall be limited to a thirty-day supply. The quantity of Schedule III, IV or V controlled substances prescribed or dispensed at any one time shall be limited to a ninety-day supply and shall be prescribed and dispensed in compliance with the general provisions of [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter and chapter 579. The supply limitations provided in this subsection may be increased up to three months if the physician describes on the prescription form or indicates via telephone, fax, or electronic communication to the pharmacy to be entered on or attached to the prescription form the medical reason for requiring the larger supply. The supply limitations provided in this subsection shall not apply if:

            (1) The prescription is issued by a practitioner located in another state according to and in compliance with the applicable laws of that state and the United States and dispensed to a patient located in another state; or

            (2) The prescription is dispensed directly to a member of the United States armed forces serving outside the United States.

            3. The partial filling of a prescription for a Schedule II substance is permissible as defined by regulation by the department of health and senior services.

            195.100. 1. It shall be unlawful to distribute any controlled substance in a commercial container unless such container bears a label containing an identifying symbol for such substance in accordance with federal laws.

            2. It shall be unlawful for any manufacturer of any controlled substance to distribute such substance unless the labeling thereof conforms to the requirements of federal law and contains the identifying symbol required in subsection 1 of this section.

            3. The label of a controlled substance in Schedule II, III or IV shall, when dispensed to or for a patient, contain a clear, concise warning that it is a criminal offense to transfer such narcotic or dangerous drug to any person other than the patient.

            4. Whenever a manufacturer sells or dispenses a controlled substance and whenever a wholesaler sells or dispenses a controlled substance in a package prepared by him or her, the manufacturer or wholesaler shall securely affix to each package in which that drug is contained a label showing in legible English the name and address of the vendor and the quantity, kind, and form of controlled substance contained therein. No person except a pharmacist for the purpose of filling a prescription under [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter, shall alter, deface, or remove any label so affixed.

            5. Whenever a pharmacist or practitioner sells or dispenses any controlled substance on a prescription issued by a physician, physician assistant, dentist, podiatrist, veterinarian, or advanced practice registered nurse, the pharmacist or practitioner shall affix to the container in which such drug is sold or dispensed a label showing his or her own name and address of the pharmacy or practitioner for whom he or she is lawfully acting; the name of the patient or, if the patient is an animal, the name of the owner of the animal and the species of the animal; the name of the physician, physician assistant, dentist, podiatrist, advanced practice registered nurse, or veterinarian by whom the prescription was written; the name of the collaborating physician if the prescription is written by an advanced practice registered nurse or the supervising physician if the prescription is written by a physician assistant, and such directions as may be stated on the prescription. No person shall alter, deface, or remove any label so affixed.

            195.140. 1. All controlled substances, imitation controlled substances or drug paraphernalia for the administration, use or manufacture of controlled substances or imitation controlled substances and which have come into the custody of a peace officer or officer or agent of the department of health and senior services as provided by sections 195.010 to 195.320, the lawful possession of which is not established or the title to which cannot be ascertained after a hearing as prescribed in Rule 34 of Rules of Criminal Procedure for the courts of Missouri or some other appropriate hearing, shall be forfeited, and disposed of as follows:

            (1) Except as in this section otherwise provided, the court or associate circuit judge having jurisdiction shall order such controlled substances, imitation controlled substances, or drug paraphernalia forfeited and destroyed. A record of the place where said controlled substances, imitation controlled substances, or drug paraphernalia were seized, of the kinds and quantities of controlled substances, imitation controlled substances, or drug paraphernalia so destroyed, and of the time, place and manner of destructions, shall be kept, and a return under oath, reporting the destruction of the controlled substances, imitation controlled substances, or drug paraphernalia shall be made to the court or associate circuit judge;

            (2) The department of health and senior services shall keep a complete record of all controlled substances, imitation controlled substances, or drug paraphernalia received and disposed of, together with the dates of such receipt and disposal, showing the exact kinds, quantities, and forms of such controlled substances, imitation controlled substances, or drug paraphernalia; the persons from whom received and to whom delivered; and by whose authority they were received, delivered or destroyed; which record shall be open to inspection by all federal or state officers charged with the enforcement of federal and state narcotic or controlled substances laws.

            2. (1) Everything of value furnished, or intended to be furnished, in exchange for a controlled substance, imitation controlled substance or drug paraphernalia in violation of sections 195.010 to 195.320, all proceeds traceable to such an exchange, and all moneys, negotiable instruments, or securities used, or intended to be used, to facilitate any violation of sections 195.010 to 195.320 shall be forfeited, except that no property shall be forfeited under this subsection to the extent of the interest of an owner by reason of any act or omission established by him to have been committed without his or her knowledge or consent.

            (2) Any moneys, coin, or currency found in close proximity to forfeitable controlled substances, imitation controlled substances, or drug paraphernalia, or forfeitable records of the importation, manufacture, or distribution of controlled substances, imitation controlled substances or drug paraphernalia are presumed to be forfeitable under this subsection. The burden of proof shall be upon claimants of the property to rebut this presumption.

            (3) All forfeiture proceedings shall be conducted pursuant to the provisions of sections 513.600 to [513.660] 513.653.

            195.150. On the conviction of any person of the violation of any provision of [this law] chapter 579, a copy of the judgment and sentence, and of the opinion of the court or associate circuit judge, if any opinion be filed, shall be sent by the clerk of the court, or by the associate circuit judge, to the board or officer, if any, by whom the convicted defendant has been licensed or registered to practice his or her profession or to carry on his or her business. On the conviction of any such person, the court may, in its discretion, suspend or revoke the license or registration of the convicted defendant to practice his or her profession or to carry on his business. On the application of any person whose license or registration has been suspended or revoked, and upon proper showing and for good cause, said board or officer may reinstate such license or registration.

            195.190. It is hereby made the duty of the department of health and senior services, its officers, agents, inspectors, and representatives, and all peace officers within the state, and all county attorneys, to enforce all provisions of [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter and chapter 579, except those specifically delegated, and to cooperate with all agencies charged with the enforcement of the laws of the United States, of this state, and of all other states, relating to narcotic and controlled substances.

            195.195. The authority to promulgate regulations for the efficient enforcement of [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter is hereby vested in the director of the department of health and senior services subject to the provisions of subsection 1 of section 195.030 and chapter 536. The director of the department of health and senior services is hereby authorized to make regulations promulgated under [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter conform with those promulgated under the federal Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970.

            195.198. 1. The director of the department of health and senior services shall carry out educational programs designed to prevent and deter misuse and abuse of controlled dangerous substances. In connection with such programs he or she may:

            (1) Assist the regulated industry and interested groups and organizations in contributing to the reduction of misuse and abuse of controlled substances;

            (2) Consult with interested groups and organizations to aid them in solving administrative and organizational problems;

            (3) Assist in the education and training of state and local law enforcement officials in their efforts to control misuse and abuse of controlled substances.

            2. The director of the department of health and senior services shall encourage research on misuse and abuse of controlled substances. In connection with such research and in furtherance of the enforcement of [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter and chapter 579, he or she may:

            (1) Establish methods to assess accurately the effects of controlled substances including but not limited to gathering, analyzing, and publishing a report using existing data regarding poisoning episodes, arrests relating to controlled substance violations, crime laboratory determinations, department of health and senior services investigations and audits, information available from the federal Drug Enforcement Administration and Food and Drug Administration, and to identify and characterize substances with potential for abuse;

            (2) Make studies and undertake programs of research to develop new or improved approaches, techniques, systems, equipment and devices to strengthen the enforcement of [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter and chapter 579.

            3. The director of the department of health and senior services may enter into contracts for educational and research activities.

            195.375. 1. A judge, upon proper oath or affirmation showing probable cause, may issue warrants for controlled premises for the purpose of conducting administrative inspections authorized by [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter, and seizures of property appropriate to the inspections. For purposes of the issuance of administrative inspection warrants, probable cause exists upon showing a valid public interest in the effective enforcement of [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter sufficient to justify administrative inspection of the area, premises, building or conveyance in the circumstances specified in the application for the warrant.

            2. A warrant shall issue only upon an affidavit of a peace officer or an employee of the department of health and senior services having knowledge of the facts alleged, sworn to before the judge and establishing the grounds for issuing the warrant. If the judge is satisfied that grounds for the application exist, he or she shall issue a warrant identifying the area, premises, building or conveyance to be inspected, the purpose of the inspection, and if appropriate, the type of property to be inspected, if any. The warrant shall:

            (1) State the grounds for its issuance and the name of each person whose affidavit has been taken in support thereof;

            (2) Be directed to a peace officer or to an employee of the department of health and senior services to execute it;

            (3) Command the person to whom it is directed to inspect the area, premises, building or conveyance identified for the purpose specified and, if appropriate, direct the seizure of the property specified;

            (4) Identify the item or types of property to be seized, if any;

            (5) Direct that it be served during normal business hours and designate the judge to whom it shall be returned.

            3. A warrant issued pursuant to this section shall be executed and returned within ten days of its date unless, upon a showing of a need for additional time, the court orders otherwise. If property is seized pursuant to a warrant, a copy shall be given to the person from whom or from whose premises the property is taken, together with a receipt for the property taken. The return of the warrant shall be made promptly, accompanied by a written inventory of any property taken. The inventory shall be made in the presence of the person executing the warrant and of the person from whose possession or premises the property was taken, if present, or in the presence of at least one credible person other than the person executing the warrant. A copy of the inventory shall be delivered to the person from whom or from whose premises the property was taken and to the applicant for the warrant.

            4. The judge who has issued a warrant shall attach thereto a copy of the return and all papers returnable in connection therewith and file them with the clerk of the court which issued the warrant. The department of health and senior services may make administrative inspections of controlled premises in accordance with the following provisions:

            (1) For purposes of this section only, "controlled premises" means:

            (a) Places where persons registered or exempted from registration requirements under [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter are required to keep records; and

            (b) Places including factories, warehouses, establishments, and conveyances in which persons registered or exempted from registration requirements under [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter are permitted to hold, manufacture, compound, process, sell, deliver, or otherwise dispose of any controlled substance;

            (2) When authorized by an administrative inspection warrant issued pursuant to this section, an officer or employee designated by the department of health and senior services, upon presenting the warrant and appropriate credentials to the owner, operator, or agent in charge, may enter controlled premises for the purpose of conducting an administrative inspection;

            (3) When authorized by an administrative inspection warrant, an officer or employee designated by the department of health and senior services may:

            (a) Inspect and copy records required by [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter to be kept;

            (b) Inspect, within reasonable limits and in a reasonable manner, controlled premises and all pertinent equipment, finished and unfinished material, containers and labeling found therein, and, except as provided in subdivision (5) of this subsection, all other things therein, including records, files, papers, processes, controls, and facilities bearing on violation of [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter; and

            (c) Inventory any stock of any controlled substance therein and obtain samples thereof;

            (4) This section does not prevent entries and administrative inspections, including seizures of property, without a warrant:

            (a) If the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the controlled premises consents;

            (b) In situations presenting imminent danger to health or safety;

            (c) In situations involving inspection of conveyances if there is reasonable cause to believe that the mobility of the conveyance makes it impracticable to obtain a warrant;

            (d) In any other exceptional or emergency circumstance where time or opportunity to apply for a warrant is lacking; or

            (e) In all other situations in which a warrant is not constitutionally required;

            (5) An inspection authorized by this section shall not extend to financial data, sales data, other than shipment data, or pricing data unless the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the controlled premises consents in writing;

            (6) The department of health and senior services may obtain computerized controlled substances dispensing information via printouts, disks, tapes or other state of the art means of electronic data transfer.

            5. Prescriptions, orders, and records, required by [sections 195.005 to 195.425] this chapter, and stocks of controlled substances shall be open for inspection only to federal, state, county, and municipal officers, whose duty it is to enforce the laws of this state or of the United States relating to narcotic drugs. No officer having knowledge by virtue of his or her office of any such prescription, order, or record shall divulge such knowledge, except in connection with a prosecution or proceeding in court or before a licensing or registration board or officer, to which prosecution or proceeding the person to whom such prescriptions, orders, or records relate is a party.

            195.417. 1. The limits specified in this section shall not apply to any quantity of such product, mixture, or preparation which must be dispensed, sold, or distributed in a pharmacy pursuant to a valid prescription.

            2. Within any thirty-day period, no person shall sell, dispense, or otherwise provide to the same individual, and no person shall purchase, receive, or otherwise acquire more than the following amount: any number of packages of any drug product containing any detectable amount of ephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, or pseudoephedrine, or any of their salts or optical isomers, or salts of optical isomers, either as:

            (1) The sole active ingredient; or

            (2) One of the active ingredients of a combination drug; or

            (3) A combination of any of the products specified in subdivisions (1) and (2) of this subsection; in any total amount greater than nine grams, without regard to the number of transactions.

            3. Within any twenty-four-hour period, no pharmacist, intern pharmacist, or registered pharmacy technician shall sell, dispense, or otherwise provide to the same individual, and no person shall purchase, receive, or otherwise acquire more than the following amount: any number of packages of any drug product containing any detectable amount of ephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, or pseudoephedrine, or any of their salts or optical isomers, or salts of optical isomers, either as:

            (1) The sole active ingredient; or

            (2) One of the active ingredients of a combination drug; or

            (3) A combination of any of the products specified in subdivisions (1) and (2) of this subsection; in any total amount greater than three and six-tenths grams without regard to the number of transactions.

            4. All packages of any compound, mixture, or preparation containing any detectable quantity of ephedrine, phenylpropanolamine, or pseudoephedrine, or any of their salts or optical isomers, or salts of optical isomers, except those that are excluded from Schedule V in subsection 17 or 18 of section 195.017, shall be offered for sale only from behind a pharmacy counter where the public is not permitted, and only by a registered pharmacist or registered pharmacy technician under section 195.017.

            5. Each pharmacy shall submit information regarding sales of any compound, mixture, or preparation as specified in this section in accordance with transmission methods and frequency established by the department by regulation.

            6. This section shall supersede and preempt any local ordinances or regulations, including any ordinances or regulations enacted by any political subdivision of the state. This section shall not apply to the sale of any animal feed products containing ephedrine or any naturally occurring or herbal ephedra or extract of ephedra.

            7. All logs, records, documents, and electronic information maintained for the dispensing of these products shall be open for inspection and copying by municipal, county, and state or federal law enforcement officers whose duty it is to enforce the controlled substances laws of this state or the United States.

            8. Within thirty days of June 15, 2005, all persons who dispense or offer for sale pseudoephedrine and ephedrine products, except those that are excluded from Schedule V in subsection 17 or 18 of section 195.017, shall ensure that all such products are located only behind a pharmacy counter where the public is not permitted.

            9. [Any person who knowingly or recklessly violates this section is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.] The penalty for a knowing or reckless violation of this section is found in section 579.060.

            195.418. 1. The retail sale of methamphetamine precursor drugs shall be limited to:

            (1) Sales in packages containing not more than a total of three grams of one or more methamphetamine precursor drugs, calculated in terms of ephedrine base, pseudoephedrine base and phenylpropanolamine base; and

            (2) For nonliquid products, sales in blister packs, each blister containing not more than two dosage units, or where the use of blister packs is technically infeasible, sales in unit dose packets or pouches.

            2. [Any person holding a retail sales license pursuant to chapter 144 who knowingly violates subsection 1 of this section is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.

            3. Any person who is considered the general owner or operator of the outlet where ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine products are available for sale who violates subsection 1 of this section shall not be penalized pursuant to this section if such person documents that an employee training program was in place to provide the employee with information on the state and federal regulations regarding ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, or phenylpropanolamine.] The penalty for a knowing violation of subsection 1 of this section is found in section 579.060.

            196.979. 1. Any person, including but not limited to a prescription drug manufacturer or health care facility, may donate prescription drugs to the prescription drug repository program. The drugs shall be donated at a pharmacy, hospital, or nonprofit clinic that elects to participate in the prescription drug repository program and meets the criteria for participation established by rule of the department pursuant to section 196.984. Participation in the program by pharmacies, hospitals, and nonprofit clinics shall be voluntary. Nothing in sections 196.970 to 196.984 shall require any pharmacy, hospital, or nonprofit clinic to participate in the program.             2. A pharmacy, hospital, or nonprofit clinic which meets the eligibility requirements established in section 196.984 may dispense prescription drugs donated under the program to persons who are residents of Missouri and who meet the eligibility requirements of the program, or to other governmental entities and nonprofit private entities to be dispensed to persons who meet the eligibility requirements of the program. A prescription drug shall be dispensed only pursuant to a prescription issued by a health care professional who is authorized by statute to prescribe drugs. A pharmacy, hospital, or nonprofit clinic which accepts donated prescription drugs shall comply with all applicable federal and state laws dealing with the storage and distribution of dangerous drugs and shall inspect all prescription drugs prior to dispensing the prescription drugs to determine that they are not adulterated as described in section 196.095. The pharmacy, hospital, or nonprofit clinic may charge persons receiving donated prescription drugs a handling fee, not to exceed a maximum of two hundred percent of the Medicaid dispensing fee, established by rule of the department promulgated pursuant to section 196.984. Prescription drugs donated to the program shall not be resold. Any individual who knowingly resells any donated prescription drugs pursuant to sections 196.970 to 196.984 shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            3. Drugs donated under this section that are not used or accepted by any pharmacy, hospital, or nonprofit clinic in this state may be distributed to out-of-state charitable repositories for use outside of this state. Such donated drugs may be repackaged in a manner appropriate for distribution by participating pharmacies, hospitals, and nonprofit clinics.

            197.266. Any hospice or employee of a hospice who knowingly abuses or neglects any client, or misappropriates the property of any client, shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            197.326. 1. Any person who is paid either as part of his or her normal employment or as a lobbyist to support or oppose any project before the health facilities review committee shall register as a lobbyist pursuant to chapter 105 and shall also register with the staff of the health facilities review committee for every project in which such person has an interest and indicate whether such person supports or opposes the named project. The registration shall also include the names and addresses of any person, firm, corporation or association that the person registering represents in relation to the named project. Any person violating the provisions of this subsection shall be subject to the penalties specified in section 105.478.

            2. A member of the general assembly who also serves as a member of the health facilities review committee is prohibited from soliciting or accepting campaign contributions from any applicant or person speaking for an applicant or any opponent to any application or persons speaking for any opponent while such application is pending before the health facilities review committee.

            3. Any person regulated by chapter 197 or 198 and any officer, attorney, agent and employee thereof, shall not offer to any committee member or to any person employed as staff to the committee, any office, appointment or position, or any present, gift, entertainment or gratuity of any kind or any campaign contribution while such application is pending before the health facilities review committee. Any person guilty of knowingly violating the provisions of this section shall be punished as follows: For the first offense, such person is guilty of a class B misdemeanor; and for the second and subsequent offenses, such person is guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            [660.250.] 197.1000. As used in [sections 660.250 to 660.321] sections 197.1000 to 197.1042, the following terms mean:

            (1) "Abuse", the infliction of physical, sexual, or emotional injury or harm including financial exploitation by any person, firm or corporation;

            (2) "Court", the circuit court;

            (3) "Department", the department of health and senior services;

            (4) "Director", director of the department of health and senior services or his or her designees;

            (5) "Eligible adult", a person sixty years of age or older who is unable to protect his or her own interests or adequately perform or obtain services which are necessary to meet his or her essential human needs or an adult with a disability, as defined in section 660.053, between the ages of eighteen and fifty-nine who is unable to protect his or her own interests or adequately perform or obtain services which are necessary to meet his or her essential human needs;

            (6) "Home health agency", the same meaning as such term is defined in section 197.400;

            (7) "Home health agency employee", a person employed by a home health agency;

            (8) "Home health patient", an eligible adult who is receiving services through any home health agency;

            (9) "In-home services client", an eligible adult who is receiving services in his or her private residence through any in-home services provider agency;

            (10) "In-home services employee", a person employed by an in-home services provider agency;

            (11) "In-home services provider agency", a business entity under contract with the department or with a Medicaid participation agreement, which employs persons to deliver any kind of services provided for eligible adults in their private homes;

            (12) "Least restrictive environment", a physical setting where protective services for the eligible adult and accommodation is provided in a manner no more restrictive of an individual's personal liberty and no more intrusive than necessary to achieve care and treatment objectives;

            (13) "Likelihood of serious physical harm", one or more of the following:

            (a) A substantial risk that physical harm to an eligible adult will occur because of his or her failure or inability to provide for his or her essential human needs as evidenced by acts or behavior which has caused such harm or which gives another person probable cause to believe that the eligible adult will sustain such harm;

            (b) A substantial risk that physical harm will be inflicted by an eligible adult upon himself or herself, as evidenced by recent credible threats, acts, or behavior which has caused such harm or which places another person in reasonable fear that the eligible adult will sustain such harm;

            (c) A substantial risk that physical harm will be inflicted by another upon an eligible adult as evidenced by recent acts or behavior which has caused such harm or which gives another person probable cause to believe the eligible adult will sustain such harm;

            (d) A substantial risk that further physical harm will occur to an eligible adult who has suffered physical injury, neglect, sexual or emotional abuse, or other maltreatment or wasting of his or her financial resources by another person;

            (14) "Neglect", the failure to provide services to an eligible adult by any person, firm or corporation with a legal or contractual duty to do so, when such failure presents either an imminent danger to the health, safety, or welfare of the client or a substantial probability that death or serious physical harm would result;

            (15) "Protective services", services provided by the state or other governmental or private organizations or individuals which are necessary for the eligible adult to meet his or her essential human needs.

            197.1002. 1. The following persons shall be required to immediately report or cause a report to be made to the department under sections 197.1000 to 197.1028:

            (1) Any person having reasonable cause to suspect that an eligible adult presents a likelihood of suffering serious physical harm and is in need of protective services; and

            (2) Any adult day care worker, chiropractor, Christian Science practitioner, coroner, dentist, embalmer, employee of the departments of social services, mental health, or health and senior services, employee of a local area agency on aging or an organized area agency on aging program, funeral director, home health agency, home health agency employee, hospital and clinic personnel engaged in the care or treatment of others, in-home services owner or provider, in-home services operator or employee, law enforcement officer, long-term care facility administrator or employee, medical examiner, medical resident or intern, mental health professional, minister, nurse, nurse practitioner, optometrist, other health practitioner, peace officer, pharmacist, physical therapist, physician, physician's assistant, podiatrist, probation or parole officer, psychologist, social worker, or other person with the responsibility for the care of a person sixty years of age or older has reasonable cause to suspect that such a person has been subjected to abuse or neglect or observes such a person being subjected to conditions or circumstances which would reasonably result in abuse or neglect. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, a duly ordained minister, clergy, religious worker, or Christian Science practitioner while functioning in his or her ministerial capacity shall not be required to report concerning a privileged communication made to him or her in his or her professional capacity.

            2. Any other person who becomes aware of circumstances that may reasonably be expected to be the result of, or result in, abuse or neglect of a person sixty years of age or older may report to the department.

            3. The penalty for failing to report as required under subdivision (2) of subsection 1 of this section is provided under section 565.188.

            [660.255.] 197.1004. 1. [Any person having reasonable cause to suspect that an eligible adult presents a likelihood of suffering serious physical harm and is in need of protective services shall report such information to the department.

            2. The report] A report made under section 197.1002 shall be made orally or in writing. It shall include, if known:

            (1) The name, age, and address of the eligible adult or person subjected to abuse or neglect;

            (2) The name and address of any person responsible for care of the eligible [adult's care] adult or person subjected to abuse or neglect;

            (3) The nature and extent of the condition of the eligible [adult's condition] adult or person subjected to abuse or neglect; and

            (4) Other relevant information.

            [3.] 2. Reports regarding persons determined not to be eligible adults as defined in section 660.250 shall be referred to the appropriate state or local authorities.

            [4.] 3. The department shall maintain a statewide toll free phone number for receipt of reports.

            [660.260.] 197.1006. Upon receipt of a report, the department shall make a prompt and thorough investigation to determine whether or not an eligible adult is facing a likelihood of serious physical harm and is in need of protective services. The department shall provide for any of the following:

            (1) Identification of the eligible adult and determination that the eligible adult is eligible for services;

            (2) Evaluation and diagnosis of the needs of eligible adults;

            (3) Provision of social casework, counseling or referral to the appropriate local or state authority;

            (4) Assistance in locating and receiving alternative living arrangements as necessary;

            (5) Assistance in locating and receiving necessary protective services; or

            (6) The coordination and cooperation with other state agencies and public and private agencies in exchange of information and the avoidance of duplication of services.

            [660.261.] 197.1008. Upon receipt of a report that an eligible adult between the ages of eighteen and fifty-nine is facing a likelihood of serious physical harm, the department shall:

            (1) Investigate or refer the report to appropriate law enforcement or state agencies; and

            (2) Provide services or refer to local community or state agencies.

            [565.186.] 197.1010. The department of health and senior services shall investigate incidents and reports of elder abuse or neglect using the procedures established in sections [660.250 to 660.295] 197.1000 to 197.1025 and, upon substantiation of the report of elder abuse or neglect, shall promptly report the incident to the appropriate law enforcement agency and prosecutor and shall determine whether protective services are required pursuant to sections [660.250 to 660.295] 197.1000 to 197.1025. If the department is unable to substantiate whether abuse or neglect occurred due to the failure of the operator or any of the operator's agents or employees to cooperate with the investigation, the incident shall be promptly reported to appropriate law enforcement agencies.

            [565.190.] 197.1012. Any person, official or institution complying with the provisions of [section 565.188] subdivision (2) of subsection 1 of section 197.1002 in the making of a report, or in cooperating with the department in any of its activities [pursuant to sections 565.186 and 565.188] under section 197.1010, except any person, official or institution violating section [565.180, 565.182 or] 565.184, shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability for making such a report, or in cooperating with the department, unless such person acted negligently, recklessly, in bad faith, or with malicious purpose.

            [660.263.] 197.1014. 1. Reports made pursuant to sections [660.250 to 660.295] 197.1000 to 197.1028 shall be confidential and shall not be deemed a public record and shall not be subject to the provisions of section 109.180 or chapter 610.

            2. Such reports shall be accessible for examination and copying only to the following persons or offices, or to their designees:

            (1) The department or any person or agency designated by the department;

            (2) The attorney general;

            (3) The department of mental health for persons referred to that department;

            (4) Any appropriate law enforcement agency; and

            (5) The eligible adult or his legal guardian.

            3. The name of the reporter shall not be disclosed unless:

            (1) Such reporter specifically authorizes disclosure of his name; and

            (2) The department determines that disclosure of the name of the reporter is necessary in order to prevent further harm to an eligible adult.

            4. Any person who violates the provisions of this section, or who permits or encourages the unauthorized dissemination of information contained in the central registry and in reports and records made pursuant to sections [660.250 to 660.295] 197.1000 to 197.1028, shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor.

            5. The department shall maintain a central registry capable of receiving and maintaining reports received in a manner that facilitates rapid access and recall of the information reported, and of subsequent investigations and other relevant information. The department shall electronically record any telephone report of suspected abuse and neglect received by the department and such recorded reports shall be retained by the department for a period of one year after recording.

            6. Although reports to the central registry may be made anonymously, the department shall in all cases, after obtaining relevant information regarding the alleged abuse or neglect, attempt to obtain the name and address of any person making a report.

            [660.265.] 197.1016. When an eligible adult gives consent to receive protective services, the department shall assist the adult in locating and arranging for necessary services in the least restrictive environment reasonably available.

            [660.270.] 197.1018. When the department receives a report that there has been abuse or neglect, or that there otherwise is a likelihood of serious physical harm to an eligible adult and that he or she is in need of protective services and the department is unable to conduct an investigation because access to the eligible adult is barred by any person, the director may petition the appropriate court for a warrant or other order to enter upon the described premises and investigate the report or to produce the information. The application for the warrant or order shall identify the eligible adult and the facts and circumstances which require the issuance of the warrant or order. The director may also seek an order to enjoin the person from barring access to an eligible adult or from interfering with the investigation. If the court finds that, based on the report and relevant circumstances and facts, probable cause exists showing that the eligible adult faces abuse or neglect, or otherwise faces a likelihood of serious physical harm and is in need of protective services and the director has been prevented by another person from investigating the report, the court may issue the warrant or enjoin the interference with the investigation or both.

            [660.275.] 197.1020. If an eligible adult gives consent to receive protective services and any other person interferes with or prevents the delivery of such services, the director may petition the appropriate court for an order to enjoin the interference with the delivery of the services. The petition shall allege the consent of the eligible adult and shall allege specific facts sufficient to show that the eligible adult faces a likelihood of serious physical harm and is in need of the protective services and that delivery is barred by the person named in the petition. If the court finds upon a preponderance of evidence that the allegations in the petition are true, the court may issue an order enjoining the interference with the delivery of the protective services and may establish such conditions and restrictions on the delivery as the court deems necessary and proper under the circumstances.

            [660.280.] 197.1022. When an eligible adult facing the likelihood of serious physical harm and in need of protective services is unable to give consent because of incapacity or legal disability and the guardian of the eligible adult refuses to provide the necessary services or allow the provision of such services, the director shall inform the court having supervisory jurisdiction over the guardian of the facts showing that the eligible adult faces the likelihood of serious physical harm and is in need of protective services and that the guardian refuses to provide the necessary services or allow the provision of such services under the provisions of sections [660.250 to 660.295] 197.1000 to 197.1028. Upon receipt of such information, the court may take such action as it deems necessary and proper to insure that the eligible adult is able to meet his essential human needs.

            [660.285.] 197.1024. 1. If the director determines after an investigation that an eligible adult is unable to give consent to receive protective services and presents a likelihood of serious physical harm, the director may initiate proceedings pursuant to chapter 202 or chapter 475, if appropriate.

            2. In order to expedite adult guardianship and conservatorship cases, the department may retain, within existing funding sources of the department, legal counsel on a case-by-case basis.

            [660.290.] 197.1026. 1. When a peace officer has probable cause to believe that an eligible adult will suffer an imminent likelihood of serious physical harm if not immediately placed in a medical facility for care and treatment, that the adult is incapable of giving consent, and that it is not possible to follow the procedures in section [660.285] 197.1024, the officer may transport, or arrange transportation for, the eligible adult to an appropriate medical facility which may admit the eligible adult and shall notify the next of kin, if known, and the director.

            2. Where access to the eligible adult is barred and a substantial likelihood exists of serious physical harm resulting to the eligible adult if he is not immediately afforded protective services, the peace officer may apply to the appropriate court for a warrant to enter upon the described premises and remove the eligible adult. The application for the warrant shall identify the eligible adult and the circumstances and facts which require the issuance of the warrant.

            3. If immediately upon admission to a medical facility, a person who is legally authorized to give consent for the provision of medical treatment for the eligible adult, has not given or refused to give such consent, and it is the opinion of the medical staff of the facility that treatment is necessary to prevent serious physical harm, the director or the head of the medical facility shall file a petition in the appropriate court for an order authorizing specific medical treatment. The court shall hold a hearing and issue its decision forthwith. Notwithstanding the above, if a licensed physician designated by the facility for such purpose examines the eligible adult and determines that the treatment is immediately or imminently necessary and any delay occasioned by the hearing provided in this subsection would jeopardize the life of the person affected, the medical facility may treat the eligible adult prior to such court hearing.

            4. The court shall conduct a hearing pursuant to chapter 475 forthwith and, if the court finds the eligible adult incapacitated, it shall appoint a guardian ad litem for the person of the eligible adult to determine the nature and extent of the medical treatment necessary for the benefit of the eligible adult and to supervise the rendition of such treatment. The guardian ad litem shall promptly report the completion of treatment to the court, who shall thereupon conduct a restoration hearing or a hearing to appoint a permanent guardian.

            5. The medical care under this section may not be rendered in a mental health facility unless authorized pursuant to the civil commitment procedures in chapter 632.

            6. Nothing contained in this section or in any other section of sections [660.250 to 660.295] 197.1000 to 197.1028 shall be construed as requiring physician or medical care or hospitalization of any person who, because of religious faith or conviction, relies on spiritual means or prayer to cure or prevent disease or suffering nor shall any provision of sections [660.250 to 660.295] 197.1000 to 197.1028 be construed so as to designate any person as an eligible adult who presents a likelihood of suffering serious physical harm and is in need of protective services solely because such person, because of religious faith or conviction, relies on spiritual means or prayer to cure or prevent disease or suffering.

            [660.295.] 197.1028. If an eligible adult does not consent to the receipt of reasonable and necessary protective services, or if an eligible adult withdraws previously given consent, the protective services shall not be provided or continued; except that, if the director has reasonable cause to believe that the eligible adult lacks the capacity to consent, the director may seek a court order pursuant to the provisions of section [660.285] 197.1024.

            [660.300.] 197.1030. 1. When any adult day care worker; chiropractor; Christian Science practitioner; coroner; dentist; embalmer; employee of the departments of social services, mental health, or health and senior services; employee of a local area agency on aging or an organized area agency on aging program; funeral director; home health agency or home health agency employee; hospital and clinic personnel engaged in examination, care, or treatment of persons; in-home services owner, provider, operator, or employee; law enforcement officer; long-term care facility administrator or employee; medical examiner; medical resident or intern; mental health professional; minister; nurse; nurse practitioner; optometrist; other health practitioner; peace officer; pharmacist; physical therapist; physician; physician's assistant; podiatrist; probation or parole officer; psychologist; or social worker has reasonable cause to believe that an in-home services client has been abused or neglected, as a result of in-home services, he or she shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the department. If the report is made by a physician of the in-home services client, the department shall maintain contact with the physician regarding the progress of the investigation.

            2. When a report of deteriorating physical condition resulting in possible abuse or neglect of an in-home services client is received by the department, the client's case manager and the department nurse shall be notified. The client's case manager shall investigate and immediately report the results of the investigation to the department nurse. The department may authorize the in-home services provider nurse to assist the case manager with the investigation.             3. If requested, local area agencies on aging shall provide volunteer training to those persons listed in subsection 1 of this section regarding the detection and report of abuse and neglect pursuant to this section.

            4. Any person required in subsection 1 of this section to report or cause a report to be made to the department who fails to do so within a reasonable time after the act of abuse or neglect is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.

            5. The report shall contain the names and addresses of the in-home services provider agency, the in-home services employee, the in-home services client, the home health agency, the home health agency employee, information regarding the nature of the abuse or neglect, the name of the complainant, and any other information which might be helpful in an investigation.

            6. In addition to those persons required to report under subsection 1 of this section, any other person having reasonable cause to believe that an in-home services client or home health patient has been abused or neglected by an in-home services employee or home health agency employee may report such information to the department.

            7. If the investigation indicates possible abuse or neglect of an in-home services client or home health patient, the investigator shall refer the complaint together with his or her report to the department director or his or her designee for appropriate action. If, during the investigation or at its completion, the department has reasonable cause to believe that immediate action is necessary to protect the in-home services client or home health patient from abuse or neglect, the department or the local prosecuting attorney may, or the attorney general upon request of the department shall, file a petition for temporary care and protection of the in-home services client or home health patient in a circuit court of competent jurisdiction. The circuit court in which the petition is filed shall have equitable jurisdiction to issue an ex parte order granting the department authority for the temporary care and protection of the in-home services client or home health patient, for a period not to exceed thirty days.

            8. Reports shall be confidential, as provided under section [660.320] 197.1040.

            9. Anyone, except any person who has abused or neglected an in-home services client or home health patient, who makes a report pursuant to this section or who testifies in any administrative or judicial proceeding arising from the report shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability for making such a report or for testifying except for liability for perjury, unless such person acted negligently, recklessly, in bad faith, or with malicious purpose.

            10. Within five working days after a report required to be made under this section is received, the person making the report shall be notified in writing of its receipt and of the initiation of the investigation.

            11. No person who directs or exercises any authority in an in-home services provider agency or home health agency shall harass, dismiss or retaliate against an in-home services client or home health patient, or an in-home services employee or a home health agency employee because he or any member of his or her family has made a report of any violation or suspected violation of laws, standards or regulations applying to the in-home services provider agency or home health agency or any in-home services employee or home health agency employee which he has reasonable cause to believe has been committed or has occurred.

            12. Any person who abuses or neglects an in-home services client or home health patient is subject to criminal prosecution under section [565.180, 565.182, or] 565.184. If such person is an in-home services employee and has been found guilty by a court, and if the supervising in-home services provider willfully and knowingly failed to report known abuse by such employee to the department, the supervising in-home services provider may be subject to administrative penalties of one thousand dollars per violation to be collected by the department and the money received therefor shall be paid to the director of revenue and deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the general revenue fund. Any in-home services provider which has had administrative penalties imposed by the department or which has had its contract terminated may seek an administrative review of the department's action pursuant to chapter 621. Any decision of the administrative hearing commission may be appealed to the circuit court in the county where the violation occurred for a trial de novo. For purposes of this subsection, the term "violation" means a determination of guilt by a court.

            13. The department shall establish a quality assurance and supervision process for clients that requires an in-home services provider agency to conduct random visits to verify compliance with program standards and verify the accuracy of records kept by an in-home services employee.             14. The department shall maintain the employee disqualification list and place on the employee disqualification list the names of any persons who have been finally determined by the department, pursuant to section [660.315] 197.1036, to have recklessly, knowingly or purposely abused or neglected an in-home services client or home health patient while employed by an in-home services provider agency or home health agency. For purposes of this section only, "knowingly" and "recklessly" shall have the meanings that are ascribed to them in this section. A person acts "knowingly" with respect to the person's conduct when a reasonable person should be aware of the result caused by his or her conduct. A person acts "recklessly" when the person consciously disregards a substantial and unjustifiable risk that the person's conduct will result in serious physical injury and such disregard constitutes a gross deviation from the standard of care that a reasonable person would exercise in the situation.

            15. At the time a client has been assessed to determine the level of care as required by rule and is eligible for in-home services, the department shall conduct a "Safe at Home Evaluation" to determine the client's physical, mental, and environmental capacity. The department shall develop the safe at home evaluation tool by rule in accordance with chapter 536. The purpose of the safe at home evaluation is to assure that each client has the appropriate level of services and professionals involved in the client's care. The plan of service or care for each in-home services client shall be authorized by a nurse. The department may authorize the licensed in-home services nurse, in lieu of the department nurse, to conduct the assessment of the client's condition and to establish a plan of services or care. The department may use the expertise, services, or programs of other departments and agencies on a case-by-case basis to establish the plan of service or care. The department may, as indicated by the safe at home evaluation, refer any client to a mental health professional, as defined in 9 CSR 30-4.030, for evaluation and treatment as necessary.

            16. Authorized nurse visits shall occur at least twice annually to assess the client and the client's plan of services. The provider nurse shall report the results of his or her visits to the client's case manager. If the provider nurse believes that the plan of service requires alteration, the department shall be notified and the department shall make a client evaluation. All authorized nurse visits shall be reimbursed to the in-home services provider. All authorized nurse visits shall be reimbursed outside of the nursing home cap for in-home services clients whose services have reached one hundred percent of the average statewide charge for care and treatment in an intermediate care facility, provided that the services have been preauthorized by the department.

            17. All in-home services clients shall be advised of their rights by the department or the department's designee at the initial evaluation. The rights shall include, but not be limited to, the right to call the department for any reason, including dissatisfaction with the provider or services. The department may contract for services relating to receiving such complaints. The department shall establish a process to receive such nonabuse and neglect calls other than the elder abuse and neglect hotline.

            18. Subject to appropriations, all nurse visits authorized in sections [660.250 to 660.300] 197.1000 to 197.1030 shall be reimbursed to the in-home services provider agency.

            [660.305.] 197.1032. 1. Any person having reasonable cause to believe that a misappropriation of an in-home services client's property or funds, or the falsification of any documents verifying service delivery to the in-home services client has occurred, may report such information to the department.

            2. For each report the department shall attempt to obtain the names and addresses of the in-home services provider agency, the in-home services employee, the in-home services client, information regarding the nature of the misappropriation or falsification, the name of the complainant, and any other information which might be helpful in an investigation.

            3. Any in-home services provider agency or in-home services employee who puts to his or her own use or the use of the in-home services provider agency or otherwise diverts from the in-home services client's use any personal property or funds of the in-home services client, or falsifies any documents for service delivery, is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.

            4. Upon receipt of a report, the department shall immediately initiate an investigation and report information gained from such investigation to appropriate law enforcement authorities.

            5. If the investigation indicates probable misappropriation of property or funds, or falsification of any documents for service delivery of an in-home services client, the investigator shall refer the complaint together with the investigator's report to the department director or the director's designee for appropriate action.

            6. Reports shall be confidential, as provided under section [660.320] 197.1040.

            7. Anyone, except any person participating in or benefitting from the misappropriation of funds, who makes a report pursuant to this section or who testifies in any administrative or judicial proceeding arising from the report shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability for making such a report or for testifying except for liability for perjury, unless such person acted negligently, recklessly, in bad faith, or with malicious purpose.

            8. Within five working days after a report required to be made under this section is received, the person making the report shall be notified in writing of its receipt and of the initiation of the investigation.

            9. No person who directs or exercises any authority in an in-home services provider agency shall harass, dismiss or retaliate against an in-home services client or employee because he or she or any member of his or her family has made a report of any violation or suspected violation of laws, ordinances or regulations applying to the in-home services provider agency or any in-home services employee which he or she has reasonable cause to believe has been committed or has occurred.

            10. The department shall maintain the employee disqualification list and place on the employee disqualification list the names of any persons who are or have been employed by an in-home service provider agency and who have been finally determined by the department to, pursuant to section [660.315] 197.1036, have misappropriated any property or funds, or falsified any documents for service delivery of an in-home services client and who came to be known to the person, directly, or indirectly while employed by an in-home services provider agency.

            [660.310.] 197.1034. 1. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, if the department of health and senior services proposes to deny, suspend, place on probation, or terminate an in-home services provider agency contract, the department of health and senior services shall serve upon the applicant or contractor written notice of the proposed action to be taken. The notice shall contain a statement of the type of action proposed, the basis for it, the date the action will become effective, and a statement that the applicant or contractor shall have thirty days from the date of mailing or delivery of the notice to file a complaint requesting a hearing before the administrative hearing commission. The administrative hearing commission may consolidate an applicant's or contractor's complaint with any proceeding before the administrative hearing commission filed by such contractor or applicant pursuant to subsection 3 of section 208.156 involving a common question of law or fact. Upon the filing of the complaint, the provisions of sections 621.110, 621.120, 621.125, 621.135, and 621.145 shall apply. With respect to cases in which the department has denied a contract to an in-home services provider agency, the administrative hearing commission shall conduct a hearing to determine the underlying basis for such denial. However, if the administrative hearing commission finds that the contract denial is supported by the facts and the law, the case need not be returned to the department. The administrative hearing commission's decision shall constitute affirmation of the department's contract denial.

            2. The department of health and senior services may issue letters of censure or warning without formal notice or hearing.

            3. The administrative hearing commission may stay the suspension or termination of an in-home services provider agency's contract, or the placement of the contractor on probation, pending the commission's findings and determination in the cause, upon such conditions, with or without the agreement of the parties, as the commission deems necessary and appropriate, including the posting of bond or other security except that the commission shall not grant a stay, or if a stay has already been entered shall set aside its stay, unless the commission finds that the contractor has established that servicing the department's clients pending the commission's final determination would not present an imminent danger to the health, safety, or welfare of any client or a substantial probability that death or serious physical harm would result. The commission may remove the stay at any time that it finds that the contractor has violated any of the conditions of the stay. Such stay shall remain in effect, unless earlier removed by the commission, pending the decision of the commission and any subsequent departmental action at which time the stay shall be removed. In any case in which the department has refused to issue a contract, the commission shall have no authority to stay or to require the issuance of a contract pending final determination by the commission.

            4. Stays granted to contractors by the administrative hearing commission shall, as a condition of the stay, require at a minimum that the contractor under the stay operate under the same contractual requirements and regulations as are in effect, from time to time, as are applicable to all other contractors in the program.

            5. The administrative hearing commission shall make its final decision based upon the circumstances and conditions as they existed at the time of the action of the department and not based upon circumstances and conditions at the time of the hearing or decision of the commission.

            6. In any proceeding before the administrative hearing commission pursuant to this section, the burden of proof shall be on the contractor or applicant seeking review.

            7. Any person, including the department, aggrieved by a final decision of the administrative hearing commission may seek judicial review of such decision as provided in section 621.145.

            [660.315.] 197.1036. 1. After an investigation and a determination has been made to place a person's name on the employee disqualification list, that person shall be notified in writing mailed to his or her last known address that:

            (1) An allegation has been made against the person, the substance of the allegation and that an investigation has been conducted which tends to substantiate the allegation;

            (2) The person's name will be included in the employee disqualification list of the department;

            (3) The consequences of being so listed including the length of time to be listed; and

            (4) The person's rights and the procedure to challenge the allegation.

            2. If no reply has been received within thirty days of mailing the notice, the department may include the name of such person on its list. The length of time the person's name shall appear on the employee disqualification list shall be determined by the director or the director's designee, based upon the criteria contained in subsection 9 of this section.

            3. If the person so notified wishes to challenge the allegation, such person may file an application for a hearing with the department. The department shall grant the application within thirty days after receipt by the department and set the matter for hearing, or the department shall notify the applicant that, after review, the allegation has been held to be unfounded and the applicant's name will not be listed.

            4. If a person's name is included on the employee disqualification list without the department providing notice as required under subsection 1 of this section, such person may file a request with the department for removal of the name or for a hearing. Within thirty days after receipt of the request, the department shall either remove the name from the list or grant a hearing and set a date therefor.

            5. Any hearing shall be conducted in the county of the person's residence by the director of the department or the director's designee. The provisions of chapter 536 for a contested case except those provisions or amendments which are in conflict with this section shall apply to and govern the proceedings contained in this section and the rights and duties of the parties involved. The person appealing such an action shall be entitled to present evidence, pursuant to the provisions of chapter 536, relevant to the allegations.

            6. Upon the record made at the hearing, the director of the department or the director's designee shall determine all questions presented and shall determine whether the person shall be listed on the employee disqualification list. The director of the department or the director's designee shall clearly state the reasons for his or her decision and shall include a statement of findings of fact and conclusions of law pertinent to the questions in issue.

            7. A person aggrieved by the decision following the hearing shall be informed of his or her right to seek judicial review as provided under chapter 536. If the person fails to appeal the director's findings, those findings shall constitute a final determination that the person shall be placed on the employee disqualification list.

            8. A decision by the director shall be inadmissible in any civil action brought against a facility or the in-home services provider agency and arising out of the facts and circumstances which brought about the employment disqualification proceeding, unless the civil action is brought against the facility or the in-home services provider agency by the department of health and senior services or one of its divisions.

            9. The length of time the person's name shall appear on the employee disqualification list shall be determined by the director of the department of health and senior services or the director's designee, based upon the following:

            (1) Whether the person acted recklessly or knowingly, as defined in chapter 562;

            (2) The degree of the physical, sexual, or emotional injury or harm; or the degree of the imminent danger to the health, safety or welfare of a resident or in-home services client;

            (3) The degree of misappropriation of the property or funds, or falsification of any documents for service delivery of an in-home services client;

            (4) Whether the person has previously been listed on the employee disqualification list;

            (5) Any mitigating circumstances;

            (6) Any aggravating circumstances; and

            (7) Whether alternative sanctions resulting in conditions of continued employment are appropriate in lieu of placing a person's name on the employee disqualification list. Such conditions of employment may include, but are not limited to, additional training and employee counseling. Conditional employment shall terminate upon the expiration of the designated length of time and the person's submitting documentation which fulfills the department of health and senior services' requirements.

            10. The removal of any person's name from the list under this section shall not prevent the director from keeping records of all acts finally determined to have occurred under this section.

            11. The department shall provide the list maintained pursuant to this section to other state departments upon request and to any person, corporation, organization, or association who:

            (1) Is licensed as an operator under chapter 198;

            (2) Provides in-home services under contract with the department;

            (3) Employs nurses and nursing assistants for temporary or intermittent placement in health care facilities;

            (4) Is approved by the department to issue certificates for nursing assistants training;

            (5) Is an entity licensed under this chapter [197];

            (6) Is a recognized school of nursing, medicine, or other health profession for the purpose of determining whether students scheduled to participate in clinical rotations with entities described in subdivision (1), (2), or (5) of this subsection are included in the employee disqualification list; or

            (7) Is a consumer reporting agency regulated by the federal Fair Credit Reporting Act that conducts employee background checks on behalf of entities listed in subdivisions (1), (2), (5), or (6) of this subsection. Such a consumer reporting agency shall conduct the employee disqualification list check only upon the initiative or request of an entity described in subdivisions (1), (2), (5), or (6) of this subsection when the entity is fulfilling its duties required under this section. The information shall be disclosed only to the requesting entity. The department shall inform any person listed above who inquires of the department whether or not a particular name is on the list. The department may require that the request be made in writing. No person, corporation, organization, or association who is entitled to access the employee disqualification list may disclose the information to any person, corporation, organization, or association who is not entitled to access the list. Any person, corporation, organization, or association who is entitled to access the employee disqualification list who discloses the information to any person, corporation, organization, or association who is not entitled to access the list shall be guilty of an infraction.

            12. No person, corporation, organization, or association who received the employee disqualification list under subdivisions (1) to (7) of subsection 11 of this section shall knowingly employ any person who is on the employee disqualification list. Any person, corporation, organization, or association who received the employee disqualification list under subdivisions (1) to (7) of subsection 11 of this section, or any person responsible for providing health care service, who declines to employ or terminates a person whose name is listed in this section shall be immune from suit by that person or anyone else acting for or in behalf of that person for the failure to employ or for the termination of the person whose name is listed on the employee disqualification list.

            13. Any employer who is required to discharge an employee because the employee was placed on a disqualification list maintained by the department of health and senior services after the date of hire shall not be charged for unemployment insurance benefits based on wages paid to the employee for work prior to the date of discharge, pursuant to section 288.100.

            14. Any person who has been listed on the employee disqualification list may request that the director remove his or her name from the employee disqualification list. The request shall be written and may not be made more than once every twelve months. The request will be granted by the director upon a clear showing, by written submission only, that the person will not commit additional acts of abuse, neglect, misappropriation of the property or funds, or the falsification of any documents of service delivery to an in-home services client. The director may make conditional the removal of a person's name from the list on any terms that the director deems appropriate, and failure to comply with such terms may result in the person's name being relisted. The director's determination of whether to remove the person's name from the list is not subject to appeal.

            [660.317.] 197.1038. 1. For the purposes of this section, the term "provider" means any person, corporation or association who:

            (1) Is licensed as an operator pursuant to chapter 198;

            (2) Provides in-home services under contract with the department;

            (3) Employs nurses or nursing assistants for temporary or intermittent placement in health care facilities;

            (4) Is an entity licensed pursuant to chapter 197;

            (5) Is a public or private facility, day program, residential facility or specialized service operated, funded or licensed by the department of mental health; or

            (6) Is a licensed adult day care provider.

            2. For the purpose of this section "patient or resident" has the same meaning as such term is defined in section 43.540.

            3. Prior to allowing any person who has been hired as a full-time, part-time or temporary position to have contact with any patient or resident the provider shall, or in the case of temporary employees hired through or contracted for an employment agency, the employment agency shall prior to sending a temporary employee to a provider:

            (1) Request a criminal background check as provided in section 43.540. Completion of an inquiry to the highway patrol for criminal records that are available for disclosure to a provider for the purpose of conducting an employee criminal records background check shall be deemed to fulfill the provider's duty to conduct employee criminal background checks pursuant to this section; except that, completing the inquiries pursuant to this subsection shall not be construed to exempt a provider from further inquiry pursuant to common law requirements governing due diligence. If an applicant has not resided in this state for five consecutive years prior to the date of his or her application for employment, the provider shall request a nationwide check for the purpose of determining if the applicant has a prior criminal history in other states. The fingerprint cards and any required fees shall be sent to the highway patrol's central repository. The first set of fingerprints shall be used for searching the state repository of criminal history information. If no identification is made, the second set of fingerprints shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation, Identification Division, for the searching of the federal criminal history files. The patrol shall notify the submitting state agency of any criminal history information or lack of criminal history information discovered on the individual. The provisions relating to applicants for employment who have not resided in this state for five consecutive years shall apply only to persons who have no employment history with a licensed Missouri facility during that five-year period. Notwithstanding the provisions of section 610.120, all records related to any criminal history information discovered shall be accessible and available to the provider making the record request; and

            (2) Make an inquiry to the department of health and senior services whether the person is listed on the employee disqualification list as provided in section [660.315] 197.1036.

            4. When the provider requests a criminal background check pursuant to section 43.540, the requesting entity may require that the applicant reimburse the provider for the cost of such record check. When a provider requests a nationwide criminal background check pursuant to subdivision (1) of subsection 3 of this section, the total cost to the provider of any background check required pursuant to this section shall not exceed five dollars which shall be paid to the state. State funding and the obligation of a provider to obtain a nationwide criminal background check shall be subject to the availability of appropriations.

            5. An applicant for a position to have contact with patients or residents of a provider shall:

            (1) Sign a consent form as required by section 43.540 so the provider may request a criminal records review;

            (2) Disclose the applicant's criminal history. For the purposes of this subdivision "criminal history" includes any conviction or a plea of guilty to a misdemeanor or felony charge and shall include any suspended imposition of sentence, any suspended execution of sentence or any period of probation or parole; and

            (3) Disclose if the applicant is listed on the employee disqualification list as provided in section [660.315] 197.1036.

            6. An applicant who knowingly fails to disclose his or her criminal history as required in subsection 5 of this section is guilty of a class A misdemeanor. A provider is guilty of a class A misdemeanor if the provider knowingly hires or retains a person to have contact with patients or residents and the person has been convicted of, pled guilty to or nolo contendere in this state or any other state or has been found guilty of a crime, which if committed in Missouri would be a class A or B felony violation of chapter 565, 566 or 569, or any violation of subsection 3 of section 198.070 or section 568.020.

            7. Any in-home services provider agency or home health agency shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor if such agency knowingly employs a person to provide in-home services or home health services to any in-home services client or home health patient and such person either refuses to register with the family care safety registry or is listed on any of the background check lists in the family care safety registry pursuant to sections 210.900 to 210.937.

            8. The highway patrol shall examine whether protocols can be developed to allow a provider to request a statewide fingerprint criminal records review check through local law enforcement agencies.

            9. A provider may use a private investigatory agency rather than the highway patrol to do a criminal history records review check, and alternatively, the applicant pays the private investigatory agency such fees as the provider and such agency shall agree.

            10. Except for the hiring restriction based on the department of health and senior services employee disqualification list established pursuant to section [660.315] 197.1036, the department of health and senior services shall promulgate rules and regulations to waive the hiring restrictions pursuant to this section for good cause. For purposes of this section, "good cause" means the department has made a determination by examining the employee's prior work history and other relevant factors that such employee does not present a risk to the health or safety of residents.

            [660.320.] 197.1040. 1. Reports confidential under section 198.070 and sections [660.300 to 660.315] 197.1030 to 197.1036 shall not be deemed a public record and shall not be subject to the provisions of section 109.180 or chapter 610. The name of the complainant or any person mentioned in the reports shall not be disclosed unless:

            (1) The complainant, resident or the in-home services client mentioned agrees to disclosure of his or her name;

            (2) The department determines that disclosure is necessary in order to prevent further abuse, neglect, misappropriation of property or funds, or falsification of any documents verifying service delivery to an in-home services client;

            (3) Release of a name is required for conformance with a lawful subpoena;

            (4) Release of a name is required in connection with a review by the administrative hearing commission in accordance with section 198.039;

            (5) The department determines that release of a name is appropriate when forwarding a report of findings of an investigation to a licensing authority; or

            (6) Release of a name is requested by the division of family services for the purpose of licensure under chapter 210.

            2. The department shall, upon request, provide to the division of employment security within the department of labor and industrial relations copies of the investigative reports that led to an employee being placed on the disqualification list.

            [660.321.] 197.1042. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the department shall not disclose personally identifiable medical, social, personal, or financial records of any eligible adult being served by the division of senior services except when disclosed in a manner that does not identify the eligible adult, or when ordered to do so by a court of competent jurisdiction. Such records shall be accessible without court order for examination and copying only to the following persons or offices, or to their designees:

            (1) The department or any person or agency designated by the department for such purposes as the department may determine;

            (2) The attorney general, to perform his or her constitutional or statutory duties;

            (3) The department of mental health for residents placed through that department, to perform its constitutional or statutory duties;

            (4) Any appropriate law enforcement agency, to perform its constitutional or statutory duties;

            (5) The eligible adult, his or her legal guardian or any other person designated by the eligible adult; and

            (6) The department of social services for individuals who receive Medicaid benefits, to perform its constitutional or statutory duties.

            198.015. 1. No person shall establish, conduct or maintain a residential care facility, assisted living facility, intermediate care facility, or skilled nursing facility in this state without a valid license issued by the department. Any person violating this subsection is guilty of a class A misdemeanor. Any person violating this subsection wherein abuse or neglect of a resident of the facility has occurred is guilty of a class [D] E felony. The department of health and senior services shall investigate any complaint concerning operating unlicensed facilities. For complaints alleging abuse or neglect, the department shall initiate an investigation within twenty-four hours. All other complaints regarding unlicensed facilities shall be investigated within forty-five days.

            2. If the department determines the unlicensed facility is in violation of sections 198.006 to 198.186, the department shall immediately notify the local prosecuting attorney or attorney general's office.

            3. Each license shall be issued only for the premises and persons named in the application. A license, unless sooner revoked, shall be issued for a period of up to two years, in order to coordinate licensure with certification in accordance with section 198.045.

            4. If during the period in which a license is in effect, a licensed operator which is a partnership, limited partnership, or corporation undergoes any of the following changes, or a new corporation, partnership, limited partnership or other entity assumes operation of a facility whether by one or by more than one action, the current operator shall notify the department of the intent to change operators and the succeeding operator shall within ten working days of such change apply for a new license:

            (1) With respect to a partnership, a change in the majority interest of general partners;

            (2) With respect to a limited partnership, a change in the general partner or in the majority interest of limited partners;

            (3) With respect to a corporation, a change in the persons who own, hold or have the power to vote the majority of any class of securities issued by the corporation.

            5. Licenses shall be posted in a conspicuous place on the licensed premises.

            6. Any license granted shall state the maximum resident capacity for which granted, the person or persons to whom granted, the date, the expiration date, and such additional information and special limitations as the department by rule may require.

            7. The department shall notify the operator at least sixty days prior to the expiration of an existing license of the date that the license application is due. Application for a license shall be made to the department at least thirty days prior to the expiration of any existing license.

            8. The department shall grant an operator a temporary operating permit in order to allow for state review of the application and inspection for the purposes of relicensure if the application review and inspection process has not been completed prior to the expiration of a license and the operator is not at fault for the failure to complete the application review and inspection process.             9. The department shall grant an operator a temporary operating permit of sufficient duration to allow the department to evaluate any application for a license submitted as a result of any change of operator.

            198.070. 1. When any adult day care worker; chiropractor; Christian Science practitioner; coroner; dentist; embalmer; employee of the departments of social services, mental health, or health and senior services; employee of a local area agency on aging or an organized area agency on aging program; funeral director; home health agency or home health agency employee; hospital and clinic personnel engaged in examination, care, or treatment of persons; in-home services owner, provider, operator, or employee; law enforcement officer; long-term care facility administrator or employee; medical examiner; medical resident or intern; mental health professional; minister; nurse; nurse practitioner; optometrist; other health practitioner; peace officer; pharmacist; physical therapist; physician; physician's assistant; podiatrist; probation or parole officer; psychologist; social worker; or other person with the care of a person sixty years of age or older or an eligible adult has reasonable cause to believe that a resident of a facility has been abused or neglected, he or she shall immediately report or cause a report to be made to the department.

            2. The report shall contain the name and address of the facility, the name of the resident, information regarding the nature of the abuse or neglect, the name of the complainant, and any other information which might be helpful in an investigation.

            3. Any person required in subsection 1 of this section to report or cause a report to be made to the department who knowingly fails to make a report within a reasonable time after the act of abuse or neglect as required in this subsection is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.

            4. In addition to the penalties imposed by this section, any administrator who knowingly conceals any act of abuse or neglect resulting in death or serious physical injury, as defined in section [565.002] 556.061, is guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            5. In addition to those persons required to report pursuant to subsection 1 of this section, any other person having reasonable cause to believe that a resident has been abused or neglected may report such information to the department.

            6. Upon receipt of a report, the department shall initiate an investigation within twenty-four hours and, as soon as possible during the course of the investigation, shall notify the resident's next of kin or responsible party of the report and the investigation and further notify them whether the report was substantiated or unsubstantiated unless such person is the alleged perpetrator of the abuse or neglect. As provided in section [565.186] 197.1010, substantiated reports of elder abuse shall be promptly reported by the department to the appropriate law enforcement agency and prosecutor.

            7. If the investigation indicates possible abuse or neglect of a resident, the investigator shall refer the complaint together with the investigator's report to the department director or the director's designee for appropriate action. If, during the investigation or at its completion, the department has reasonable cause to believe that immediate removal is necessary to protect the resident from abuse or neglect, the department or the local prosecuting attorney may, or the attorney general upon request of the department shall, file a petition for temporary care and protection of the resident in a circuit court of competent jurisdiction. The circuit court in which the petition is filed shall have equitable jurisdiction to issue an ex parte order granting the department authority for the temporary care and protection of the resident, for a period not to exceed thirty days.

            8. Reports shall be confidential, as provided pursuant to section [660.320] 197.1040.

            9. Anyone, except any person who has abused or neglected a resident in a facility, who makes a report pursuant to this section or who testifies in any administrative or judicial proceeding arising from the report shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability for making such a report or for testifying except for liability for perjury, unless such person acted negligently, recklessly, in bad faith or with malicious purpose. It is a crime [pursuant to section 565.186 and 565.188] under section 565.189 for any person to purposely file a false report of elder abuse or neglect.

            10. Within five working days after a report required to be made pursuant to this section is received, the person making the report shall be notified in writing of its receipt and of the initiation of the investigation.

            11. No person who directs or exercises any authority in a facility shall evict, harass, dismiss or retaliate against a resident or employee because such resident or employee or any member of such resident's or employee's family has made a report of any violation or suspected violation of laws, ordinances or regulations applying to the facility which the resident, the resident's family or an employee has reasonable cause to believe has been committed or has occurred. Through the existing department information and referral telephone contact line, residents, their families and employees of a facility shall be able to obtain information about their rights, protections and options in cases of eviction, harassment, dismissal or retaliation due to a report being made pursuant to this section.

            12. Any person who abuses or neglects a resident of a facility is subject to criminal prosecution under section [565.180, 565.182, or] 565.184.

            13. The department shall maintain the employee disqualification list and place on the employee disqualification list the names of any persons who are or have been employed in any facility and who have been finally determined by the department pursuant to section [660.315] 197.1036 to have knowingly or recklessly abused or neglected a resident. For purposes of this section only, "knowingly" and "recklessly" shall have the meanings that are ascribed to them in this section. A person acts "knowingly" with respect to the person's conduct when a reasonable person should be aware of the result caused by his or her conduct. A person acts "recklessly" when the person consciously disregards a substantial and unjustifiable risk that the person's conduct will result in serious physical injury and such disregard constitutes a gross deviation from the standard of care that a reasonable person would exercise in the situation.

            14. The timely self-reporting of incidents to the central registry by a facility shall continue to be investigated in accordance with department policy, and shall not be counted or reported by the department as a hot-line call but rather a self-reported incident. If the self-reported incident results in a regulatory violation, such incident shall be reported as a substantiated report.

            198.097. 1. Any person who assumes the responsibility of managing the financial affairs of an elderly or disabled person who is a resident of any facility licensed under this chapter is guilty of a class [D] E felony if such person misappropriates the funds and fails to pay for the facility care of the elderly or disabled person. For purposes of this subsection, a person assumes the responsibility of managing the financial affairs of an elderly person when he or she receives, has access to, handles, or controls the elderly or disabled person's monetary funds, including but not limited to Social Security income, pension, cash, or other resident income.

            2. Evidence of misappropriating funds and failure to pay for the care of an elderly or disabled person may include but not be limited to proof that the facility has sent, by certified mail with confirmation receipt requested, notification of failure to pay facility care expenses incurred by a resident to the person who has assumed responsibility of managing the financial affairs of the resident.

            3. Nothing in subsection 2 of this section shall be construed as limiting the investigations or prosecutions of violations of subsection 1 of this section or the crime of financial exploitation of an elderly or disabled person as defined by section 570.145.

            198.158. 1. A person committing any act in violation of any provision of sections 198.139 to 198.155 is guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            2. A vendor or health care provider convicted of a criminal violation of sections 198.139 to 198.155 shall be prohibited from receiving future moneys under Medicaid or from providing services under Medicaid for or on behalf of any other health care provider. However, the director of the department or his or her designee shall review this prohibition upon the petition of a vendor or health care provider so convicted and, for good cause shown, may reinstate the vendor or health care provider as being eligible to receive funds under Medicaid. The decision of the director or his or her designee shall be made in writing after the director of the fraud investigation division is allowed the opportunity to state his or her position concerning such petition.

            3. A vendor or health care provider committing any act or omission in violation of sections 198.139 to 198.155 shall be civilly liable to the state for any moneys obtained under Medicaid as a result of such act or omission.

            205.965. 1. Counties, state agencies, issuing agencies, retail food outlets, wholesale food concerns, banks and all persons who participate in or administer any part of the distribution program of surplus agricultural commodities or a food stamp plan shall comply with all state and federal laws, rules and regulations applicable to such program or plans and shall be subject to inspection and audit by the division of family services with respect to the operation of the program or plan.

            2. To the extent authorized by federal law, all food stamp vendors shall be approved and licensed by the division of family services. The division may promulgate rules and regulations necessary to administer the provisions of this section. The division shall set the amount of the fees for licensing food stamp vendors at a level to produce revenue which shall not substantially exceed the cost and expense of administering the provisions of this section. An action may be brought by the department to temporarily or permanently enjoin or restrain any violation of this subsection or the regulations applicable thereto. Any action brought under the provisions of this subsection shall be heard by the court within no more than twenty days after the action has been filed and service made upon the vendor. Any person who in any way conducts business as a food stamp vendor without approval and license by the division of family services shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor. A second offense within five years after the first conviction shall be a class [D] E felony.

            3. No rule or portion of a rule promulgated under the authority of this chapter shall become effective unless it has been promulgated pursuant to the provisions of section 536.024.

            210.117. 1. A child taken into the custody of the state shall not be reunited with a parent or placed in a home in which the parent or any person residing in the home has been found guilty of, or pled guilty to, any of the following offenses when a child was the victim:

            (1) A felony violation of section 566.030, 566.032, 566.040, 566.060, 566.062, 566.064, 566.067, 566.068, 566.069, 566.070, 566.071, 566.083, 566.090, 566.100, 566.111, 566.151, 566.203, 566.206, 566.209, 566.212, or 566.215;

            (2) A violation of section 568.020;

            (3) A violation of subdivision (2) of subsection 1 of section 568.060;

            (4) A violation of section 568.065;

            (5) A violation of section 568.080;

            (6) A violation of section 568.090; or

            (7) A violation of section 568.175.

            2. For all other violations of offenses in chapters 566 and 568 not specifically listed in subsection 1 of this section or for a violation of an offense committed in another state when a child is the victim that would be a violation of chapter 566 or 568, if committed in Missouri, the division may exercise its discretion regarding the placement of a child taken into the custody of the state in which a parent or any person residing in the home has been found guilty of, or pled guilty to, any such offense.

            3. In any case where the children's division determines based on a substantiated report of child abuse that a child has abused another child, the abusing child shall be prohibited from returning to or residing in any residence, facility, or school within one thousand feet of the residence of the abused child or any child care facility or school that the abused child attends, unless and until a court of competent jurisdiction determines that the alleged abuse did not occur or the abused child reaches the age of eighteen, whichever earlier occurs. The provisions of this subsection shall not apply when the abusing child and the abused child are siblings or children living in the same home.

            210.165. 1. Any person violating any provision of sections 210.110 to 210.165 is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.

            2. Any person who intentionally files a false report of child abuse or neglect shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor.

            3. Every person who has been previously convicted of making a false report to the division of family services and who is subsequently convicted of making a false report under subsection 2 of this section is guilty of a class [D] E felony and shall be punished as provided by law.

            4. Evidence of prior convictions of false reporting shall be heard by the court, out of the hearing of the jury, prior to the submission of the case to the jury, and the court shall determine the existence of the prior convictions.

            211.038. 1. A child under the jurisdiction of the juvenile court shall not be reunited with a parent or placed in a home in which the parent or any person residing in the home has been found guilty of, or pled guilty to, any of the following offenses when a child was the victim:

            (1) A felony violation of section 566.030, 566.032, 566.040, 566.060, 566.062, 566.064, 566.067, 566.068, 566.069, 566.070, 566.071, 566.083, 566.090, 566.100, 566.111, 566.151, 566.203, 566.206, 566.209, 566.212, or 566.215;

            (2) A violation of section 568.020;

            (3) A violation of subdivision (2) of subsection 1 of section 568.060;

            (4) A violation of section 568.065;

            (5) A violation of section 568.080;

            (6) A violation of section 568.090; or

            (7) A violation of section 568.175.

            2. For all other violations of offenses in chapters 566 and 568 not specifically listed in subsection 1 of this section or for a violation of an offense committed in another state when a child is the victim that would be a violation of chapter 566 or 568 if committed in Missouri, the juvenile court may exercise its discretion regarding the placement of a child under the jurisdiction of the juvenile court in a home in which a parent or any person residing in the home has been found guilty of, or pled guilty to, any such offense.

            3. If the juvenile court determines that a child has abused another child, such abusing child shall be prohibited from returning to or residing in any residence located within one thousand feet of the residence of the abused child, or any child care facility or school that the abused child attends, until the abused child reaches eighteen years of age. The prohibitions of this subsection shall not apply where the alleged abuse occurred between siblings or children living in the same home.

            211.071. 1. If a petition alleges that a child between the ages of twelve and seventeen has committed an offense which would be considered a felony if committed by an adult, the court may, upon its own motion or upon motion by the juvenile officer, the child or the child's custodian, order a hearing and may, in its discretion, dismiss the petition and such child may be transferred to the court of general jurisdiction and prosecuted under the general law; except that if a petition alleges that any child has committed an offense which would be considered first degree murder under section 565.020, second degree murder under section 565.021, first degree assault under section 565.050, [forcible] rape in the first degree under section 566.030, [forcible] sodomy in the first degree under section 566.060, first degree robbery under section 569.020, or distribution of drugs under section 195.211, or has committed two or more prior unrelated offenses which would be felonies if committed by an adult, the court shall order a hearing, and may in its discretion, dismiss the petition and transfer the child to a court of general jurisdiction for prosecution under the general law.

            2. Upon apprehension and arrest, jurisdiction over the criminal offense allegedly committed by any person between seventeen and twenty-one years of age over whom the juvenile court has retained continuing jurisdiction shall automatically terminate and that offense shall be dealt with in the court of general jurisdiction as provided in section 211.041.

            3. Knowing and willful age misrepresentation by a juvenile subject shall not affect any action or proceeding which occurs based upon the misrepresentation. Any evidence obtained during the period of time in which a child misrepresents his or her age may be used against the child and will be subject only to rules of evidence applicable in adult proceedings.

            4. Written notification of a transfer hearing shall be given to the juvenile and his or her custodian in the same manner as provided in sections 211.101 and 211.111. Notice of the hearing may be waived by the custodian. Notice shall contain a statement that the purpose of the hearing is to determine whether the child is a proper subject to be dealt with under the provisions of this chapter, and that if the court finds that the child is not a proper subject to be dealt with under the provisions of this chapter, the petition will be dismissed to allow for prosecution of the child under the general law.

            5. The juvenile officer may consult with the office of prosecuting attorney concerning any offense for which the child could be certified as an adult under this section. The prosecuting or circuit attorney shall have access to police reports, reports of the juvenile or deputy juvenile officer, statements of witnesses and all other records or reports relating to the offense alleged to have been committed by the child. The prosecuting or circuit attorney shall have access to the disposition records of the child when the child has been adjudicated pursuant to subdivision (3) of subsection 1 of section 211.031. The prosecuting attorney shall not divulge any information regarding the child and the offense until the juvenile court at a judicial hearing has determined that the child is not a proper subject to be dealt with under the provisions of this chapter.

            6. A written report shall be prepared in accordance with this chapter developing fully all available information relevant to the criteria which shall be considered by the court in determining whether the child is a proper subject to be dealt with under the provisions of this chapter and whether there are reasonable prospects of rehabilitation within the juvenile justice system. These criteria shall include but not be limited to:

            (1) The seriousness of the offense alleged and whether the protection of the community requires transfer to the court of general jurisdiction;

            (2) Whether the offense alleged involved viciousness, force and violence;

            (3) Whether the offense alleged was against persons or property with greater weight being given to the offense against persons, especially if personal injury resulted;

            (4) Whether the offense alleged is a part of a repetitive pattern of offenses which indicates that the child may be beyond rehabilitation under the juvenile code;

            (5) The record and history of the child, including experience with the juvenile justice system, other courts, supervision, commitments to juvenile institutions and other placements;

            (6) The sophistication and maturity of the child as determined by consideration of his home and environmental situation, emotional condition and pattern of living;

            (7) The age of the child;

            (8) The program and facilities available to the juvenile court in considering disposition;

            (9) Whether or not the child can benefit from the treatment or rehabilitative programs available to the juvenile court; and

            (10) Racial disparity in certification.

            7. If the court dismisses the petition to permit the child to be prosecuted under the general law, the court shall enter a dismissal order containing:

            (1) Findings showing that the court had jurisdiction of the cause and of the parties;

            (2) Findings showing that the child was represented by counsel;

            (3) Findings showing that the hearing was held in the presence of the child and his counsel; and

            (4) Findings showing the reasons underlying the court's decision to transfer jurisdiction.             8. A copy of the petition and order of the dismissal shall be sent to the prosecuting attorney.

            9. When a petition has been dismissed thereby permitting a child to be prosecuted under the general law, the jurisdiction of the juvenile court over that child is forever terminated, except as provided in subsection 10 of this section, for an act that would be a violation of a state law or municipal ordinance.

            10. If a petition has been dismissed thereby permitting a child to be prosecuted under the general law and the child is found not guilty by a court of general jurisdiction, the juvenile court shall have jurisdiction over any later offense committed by that child which would be considered a misdemeanor or felony if committed by an adult, subject to the certification provisions of this section.

            11. If the court does not dismiss the petition to permit the child to be prosecuted under the general law, it shall set a date for the hearing upon the petition as provided in section 211.171.

            211.447. 1. Any information that could justify the filing of a petition to terminate parental rights may be referred to the juvenile officer by any person. The juvenile officer shall make a preliminary inquiry and if it does not appear to the juvenile officer that a petition should be filed, such officer shall so notify the informant in writing within thirty days of the referral. Such notification shall include the reasons that the petition will not be filed. Thereupon, the informant may bring the matter directly to the attention of the judge of the juvenile court by presenting the information in writing, and if it appears to the judge that the information could justify the filing of a petition, the judge may order the juvenile officer to take further action, including making a further preliminary inquiry or filing a petition.

            2. Except as provided for in subsection 4 of this section, a petition to terminate the parental rights of the child's parent or parents shall be filed by the juvenile officer or the division, or if such a petition has been filed by another party, the juvenile officer or the division shall seek to be joined as a party to the petition, when:

            (1) Information available to the juvenile officer or the division establishes that the child has been in foster care for at least fifteen of the most recent twenty-two months; or

            (2) A court of competent jurisdiction has determined the child to be an abandoned infant. For purposes of this subdivision, an "infant" means any child one year of age or under at the time of filing of the petition. The court may find that an infant has been abandoned if:

            (a) The parent has left the child under circumstances that the identity of the child was unknown and could not be ascertained, despite diligent searching, and the parent has not come forward to claim the child; or

            (b) The parent has, without good cause, left the child without any provision for parental support and without making arrangements to visit or communicate with the child, although able to do so; or

            (3) A court of competent jurisdiction has determined that the parent has:

            (a) Committed murder of another child of the parent; or

            (b) Committed voluntary manslaughter of another child of the parent; or

            (c) Aided or abetted, attempted, conspired or solicited to commit such a murder or voluntary manslaughter; or

            (d) Committed a felony assault that resulted in serious bodily injury to the child or to another child of the parent.

            3. A termination of parental rights petition shall be filed by the juvenile officer or the division, or if such a petition has been filed by another party, the juvenile officer or the division shall seek to be joined as a party to the petition, within sixty days of the judicial determinations required in subsection 2 of this section, except as provided in subsection 4 of this section. Failure to comply with this requirement shall not deprive the court of jurisdiction to adjudicate a petition for termination of parental rights which is filed outside of sixty days.

            4. If grounds exist for termination of parental rights pursuant to subsection 2 of this section, the juvenile officer or the division may, but is not required to, file a petition to terminate the parental rights of the child's parent or parents if:

            (1) The child is being cared for by a relative; or

            (2) There exists a compelling reason for determining that filing such a petition would not be in the best interest of the child, as documented in the permanency plan which shall be made available for court review; or

            (3) The family of the child has not been provided such services as provided for in section 211.183.

            5. The juvenile officer or the division may file a petition to terminate the parental rights of the child's parent when it appears that one or more of the following grounds for termination exist:

            (1) The child has been abandoned. For purposes of this subdivision a "child" means any child over one year of age at the time of filing of the petition. The court shall find that the child has been abandoned if, for a period of six months or longer:

            (a) The parent has left the child under such circumstances that the identity of the child was unknown and could not be ascertained, despite diligent searching, and the parent has not come forward to claim the child; or

            (b) The parent has, without good cause, left the child without any provision for parental support and without making arrangements to visit or communicate with the child, although able to do so;

            (2) The child has been abused or neglected. In determining whether to terminate parental rights pursuant to this subdivision, the court shall consider and make findings on the following conditions or acts of the parent:

            (a) A mental condition which is shown by competent evidence either to be permanent or such that there is no reasonable likelihood that the condition can be reversed and which renders the parent unable to knowingly provide the child the necessary care, custody and control;

            (b) Chemical dependency which prevents the parent from consistently providing the necessary care, custody and control of the child and which cannot be treated so as to enable the parent to consistently provide such care, custody and control;

            (c) A severe act or recurrent acts of physical, emotional or sexual abuse toward the child or any child in the family by the parent, including an act of incest, or by another under circumstances that indicate that the parent knew or should have known that such acts were being committed toward the child or any child in the family; or

            (d) Repeated or continuous failure by the parent, although physically or financially able, to provide the child with adequate food, clothing, shelter, or education as defined by law, or other care and control necessary for the child's physical, mental, or emotional health and development. Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to permit discrimination on the basis of disability or disease;

            (3) The child has been under the jurisdiction of the juvenile court for a period of one year, and the court finds that the conditions which led to the assumption of jurisdiction still persist, or conditions of a potentially harmful nature continue to exist, that there is little likelihood that those conditions will be remedied at an early date so that the child can be returned to the parent in the near future, or the continuation of the parent-child relationship greatly diminishes the child's prospects for early integration into a stable and permanent home. In determining whether to terminate parental rights under this subdivision, the court shall consider and make findings on the following:

            (a) The terms of a social service plan entered into by the parent and the division and the extent to which the parties have made progress in complying with those terms;

            (b) The success or failure of the efforts of the juvenile officer, the division or other agency to aid the parent on a continuing basis in adjusting his circumstances or conduct to provide a proper home for the child;

            (c) A mental condition which is shown by competent evidence either to be permanent or such that there is no reasonable likelihood that the condition can be reversed and which renders the parent unable to knowingly provide the child the necessary care, custody and control;

            (d) Chemical dependency which prevents the parent from consistently providing the necessary care, custody and control over the child and which cannot be treated so as to enable the parent to consistently provide such care, custody and control; or

            (4) The parent has been found guilty or pled guilty to a felony violation of chapter 566 when the child or any child in the family was a victim, or a violation of section 568.020 when the child or any child in the family was a victim. As used in this subdivision, a "child" means any person who was under eighteen years of age at the time of the crime and who resided with such parent or was related within the third degree of consanguinity or affinity to such parent; or

            (5) The child was conceived and born as a result of an act of [forcible] rape in the first degree. When the biological father has pled guilty to, or is convicted of, the [forcible] rape in the first degree of the birth mother, such a plea or conviction shall be conclusive evidence supporting the termination of the biological father's parental rights; or

            (6) The parent is unfit to be a party to the parent and child relationship because of a consistent pattern of committing a specific abuse, including but not limited to abuses as defined in section 455.010, child abuse or drug abuse before the child or of specific conditions directly relating to the parent and child relationship either of which are determined by the court to be of a duration or nature that renders the parent unable, for the reasonably foreseeable future, to care appropriately for the ongoing physical, mental or emotional needs of the child. It is presumed that a parent is unfit to be a party to the parent-child relationship upon a showing that within a three-year period immediately prior to the termination adjudication, the parent's parental rights to one or more other children were involuntarily terminated pursuant to subsection 2 or 4 of this section or subdivisions (1), (2), (3) or (4) of subsection 5 of this section or similar laws of other states.

            6. The juvenile court may terminate the rights of a parent to a child upon a petition filed by the juvenile officer or the division, or in adoption cases, by a prospective parent, if the court finds that the termination is in the best interest of the child and when it appears by clear, cogent and convincing evidence that grounds exist for termination pursuant to subsection 2, 4 or 5 of this section.

            7. When considering whether to terminate the parent-child relationship pursuant to subsection 2 or 4 of this section or subdivision (1), (2), (3) or (4) of subsection 5 of this section, the court shall evaluate and make findings on the following factors, when appropriate and applicable to the case:

            (1) The emotional ties to the birth parent;

            (2) The extent to which the parent has maintained regular visitation or other contact with the child;

            (3) The extent of payment by the parent for the cost of care and maintenance of the child when financially able to do so including the time that the child is in the custody of the division or other child-placing agency;

            (4) Whether additional services would be likely to bring about lasting parental adjustment enabling a return of the child to the parent within an ascertainable period of time;

            (5) The parent's disinterest in or lack of commitment to the child;

            (6) The conviction of the parent of a felony offense that the court finds is of such a nature that the child will be deprived of a stable home for a period of years; provided, however, that incarceration in and of itself shall not be grounds for termination of parental rights;

            (7) Deliberate acts of the parent or acts of another of which the parent knew or should have known that subjects the child to a substantial risk of physical or mental harm.

            8. The court may attach little or no weight to infrequent visitations, communications, or contributions. It is irrelevant in a termination proceeding that the maintenance of the parent-child relationship may serve as an inducement for the parent's rehabilitation.

            9. In actions for adoption pursuant to chapter 453, the court may hear and determine the issues raised in a petition for adoption containing a prayer for termination of parental rights filed with the same effect as a petition permitted pursuant to subsection 2, 4, or 5 of this section.

            10. The disability or disease of a parent shall not constitute a basis for a determination that a child is a child in need of care, for the removal of custody of a child from the parent, or for the termination of parental rights without a specific showing that there is a causal relation between the disability or disease and harm to the child.

            214.410. 1. Any cemetery operator who shall willfully violate any provisions of sections 214.270 to 214.410 for which no penalty is otherwise prescribed shall be deemed guilty of a misdemeanor and upon conviction thereof shall be fined a sum not to exceed five hundred dollars or shall be confined not more than six months or both.

            2. Any cemetery operator who shall willfully violate any provision of section 214.320, 214.330, 214.335, 214.340, 214.360, 214.385, or 214.387 shall be deemed guilty of a class [D] E felony and upon conviction thereof shall be fined a sum not to exceed ten thousand dollars or shall be confined not more than five years or both. This section shall not apply to cemeteries or cemetery associations which do not sell lots in the cemetery.

            3. Any trustee who shall willfully violate any applicable provisions of sections 214.270 to 214.410 shall have committed an unsafe and unsound banking practice and shall be penalized as authorized by chapters 361 and 362. This subsection shall be enforced exclusively by the Missouri division of finance for state chartered institutions and the Missouri attorney general for federally chartered institutions.

            4. Any person who shall willfully violate any provision of section 214.320, 214.330, 214.335, 214.340, 214.360 or 214.385 or violates any rule, regulation or order of the division may, in accordance with the regulations issued by the division, be assessed an administrative penalty by the division. The penalty shall not exceed five thousand dollars for each violation and each day of the continuing violation shall be deemed a separate violation for purposes of administrative penalty assessment. However, no administrative penalty may be assessed until the person charged with the violation has been given the opportunity for a hearing on the violation. Penalty assessments received shall be deposited in the endowed care cemetery audit fund created in section 193.265.

            217.010. As used in this chapter and chapter 558, unless the context clearly indicates otherwise, the following terms shall mean:

            (1) "Administrative segregation unit", a cell for the segregation of offenders from the general population of a facility for relatively extensive periods of time;

            (2) "Board", the board of probation and parole;

            (3) "Chief administrative officer", the institutional head of any correctional facility or his designee;

            (4) "Correctional center", any premises or institution where incarceration, evaluation, care, treatment, or rehabilitation is provided to persons who are under the department's authority;

            (5) "Department", the department of corrections of the state of Missouri;

            (6) "Director", the director of the department of corrections or his designee;

            (7) "Disciplinary segregation", a cell for the segregation of offenders from the general population of a correctional center because the offender has been found to have committed a violation of a division or facility rule and other available means are inadequate to regulate the offender's behavior;

            (8) "Division", a statutorily created agency within the department or an agency created by the departmental organizational plan;

            (9) "Division director", the director of a division of the department or his designee;

            (10) "Local volunteer community board", a board of qualified local community volunteers selected by the court for the purpose of working in partnership with the court and the department of corrections in a reparative probation program;

            (11) "Nonviolent offender", any offender who is convicted of a crime other than murder in the first or second degree, involuntary manslaughter, kidnapping, [forcible] rape in the first degree, [forcible] sodomy in the first degree, robbery in the first degree or assault in the first degree;

            (12) "Offender", a person under supervision or an inmate in the custody of the department;

            (13) "Probation", a procedure under which a defendant found guilty of a crime upon verdict or plea is released by the court without imprisonment, subject to conditions imposed by the court and subject to the supervision of the board;

            (14) "Volunteer", any person who, of his own free will, performs any assigned duties for the department or its divisions with no monetary or material compensation.

            217.360. 1. It shall be an offense for any person to knowingly deliver, attempt to deliver, have in his or her possession, deposit or conceal in or about the premises of any correctional center, or city or county jail, or private prison or jail:

            (1) Any controlled substance as that term is defined by law, except upon the written prescription of a licensed physician, dentist, or veterinarian;

            (2) Any other alkaloid of any controlled substance, any spirituous or malt liquor, or any intoxicating liquor as defined in section 311.020;

            (3) Any article or item of personal property which an offender is prohibited by law or by rule and regulation of the division from receiving or possessing;

            (4) Any gun, knife, weapon, or other article or item of personal property that may be used in such manner as to endanger the safety or security of the correctional center, or city or county jail, or private prison or jail or as to endanger the life or limb of any offender or employee of such a center.

            2. The violation of subdivision (1) of subsection 1 of this section shall be a class [C] D felony; the violation of subdivision (2) of subsection 1 of this section shall be a class [D] E felony; the violation of subdivision (3) of subsection 1 of this section shall be a class A misdemeanor; and the violation of subdivision (4) of subsection 1 of this section shall be a class B felony.

            3. Any person who has been found guilty of or has pled guilty to a violation of subdivision (2) of subsection 1 of this section involving any alkaloid shall be entitled to expungement of the record of the violation. The procedure to expunge the record shall be pursuant to section 610.123. The record of any person shall not be expunged if such person has been found guilty of or has pled guilty to knowingly delivering, attempting to deliver, having in his or her possession, or depositing or concealing any alkaloid of any controlled substance in or about the premises of any correctional center, or city or county jail, or private prison or jail.

            217.385. 1. No offender shall knowingly commit violence to an employee of the department or to another offender housed in a department correctional center. Violation of this subsection shall be a class B felony.

            2. No offender shall knowingly damage any building or other property owned or operated by the department. Violation of this subsection shall be a class [C] D felony.

            217.400. 1. A person commits the crime of furnishing unfit food to offenders if he does any of the following:

            (1) Knowingly furnishes or delivers any diseased, putrid or otherwise unwholesome meat from any animal or fowl that was diseased or otherwise unfit for food to any correctional center operated or funded by the department;

            (2) Knowingly furnishes or delivers any other unwholesome food, vegetables or provisions whatsoever to such correctional centers to be used as food by the offenders in such correctional centers;

            (3) Knowingly receives or consents to receive as an employee of such correctional center any diseased or unwholesome meat, food or provisions.

            2. Furnishing unfit food to offenders is a class [D] E felony.

            217.405. 1. Except as provided in subsection 3 of this section, a person commits the crime of "offender abuse" if he knowingly injures the physical well-being of any offender under the jurisdiction of the department by beating, striking, wounding or by sexual contact with such person.

            2. Offender abuse is a class [C] D felony.

            3. No employee of the department shall use any physical force on an offender except the employee shall have the right to use such physical force as is necessary to defend himself or herself, suppress an individual or group revolt or insurrection, enforce discipline or to secure the offender.

            217.542. 1. An offender of the department released to the house arrest program commits the crime of failure to return to house arrest if he or she purposely fails to return to his or her place of residence or activity authorized by subsection 3 of section 217.541 when he or she is required to do so.

            2. Failure to return to house arrest is a class [D] E felony.

            217.543. 1. The jailer of any city not within a county having custody of pretrial detainees or persons serving sentences for violation of state or local laws may establish a program of house arrest consistent with the provisions of this section.

            2. Such jailer shall by rule establish a program of house arrest. Such jailer may extend the limits of confinement for pretrial detainees or persons serving sentences for violation of state or local laws.

            3. The inmate or detainee shall remain an inmate of such jailer and shall be subject to the rules and regulations of the house arrest program.

            4. Such jailer shall require the inmate or detainee to participate in work or educational or vocational programs and other activities that may be necessary to the supervision and treatment of the inmate or detainee.

            5. An inmate or detainee released to house arrest shall be authorized to leave his or her place of residence only for the purpose and time necessary to participate in the programs and activities authorized.

            6. Such jailer shall supervise every inmate or detainee released to the house arrest program and shall verify compliance with the requirements set forth for each person so released and such other rules and regulations that such jailer shall promulgate, and may do so by remote electronic surveillance. Such jailer may direct to any peace officer the return of any inmate or detainee from house arrest for violation of the conditions of release.

            7. Each inmate or detainee who is released on house arrest shall pay a percentage of his or her wages to cover the costs of house arrest, such amount to be established by the jailer.

            8. An inmate released to the house arrest program pursuant to this section commits the crime of escape from custody if such inmate purposely fails to return to his or her place of residence or activity as established by the jailer when he or she is required to do so. Escape from custody is a class [D] E felony.

            217.692. 1. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, any offender incarcerated in a correctional institution serving any sentence of life with no parole for fifty years or life without parole, whose plea of guilt was entered or whose trial commenced prior to December 31, 1990, and who:

            (1) Pleaded guilty to or was found guilty of a homicide of a spouse or domestic partner;

            (2) Has no prior violent felony convictions;

            (3) No longer has a cognizable legal claim or legal recourse; and

            (4) Has a history of being a victim of continual and substantial physical or sexual domestic violence that was not presented as an affirmative defense at trial or sentencing and such history can be corroborated with evidence of facts or circumstances which existed at the time of the alleged physical or sexual domestic violence of the offender, including but not limited to witness statements, hospital records, social services records, and law enforcement records; shall be eligible for parole after having served fifteen years of such sentence when the board determines by using the guidelines established by this section that there is a strong and reasonable probability that the person will not thereafter violate the law.

            2. The board of probation and parole shall give a thorough review of the case history and prison record of any offender described in subsection 1 of this section. At the end of the board's review, the board shall provide the offender with a copy of a statement of reasons for its parole decision.

            3. Any offender released under the provisions of this section shall be under the supervision of the parole board for an amount of time to be determined by the board.

            4. The parole board shall consider, but not be limited to the following criteria when making its parole decision:

            (1) Length of time served;

            (2) Prison record and self-rehabilitation efforts;

            (3) Whether the history of the case included corroborative material of physical, sexual, mental, or emotional abuse of the offender, including but not limited to witness statements, hospital records, social service records, and law enforcement records;

            (4) If an offer of a plea bargain was made and if so, why the offender rejected or accepted the offer;

            (5) Any victim information outlined in subsection 7 of section 217.690 and section 595.209;

            (6) The offender's continued claim of innocence;

            (7) The age and maturity of the offender at the time of the board's decision;

            (8) The age and maturity of the offender at the time of the crime and any contributing influence affecting the offender's judgment;

            (9) The presence of a workable parole plan; and

            (10) Community and family support.

            5. Nothing in this section shall limit the review of any offender's case who is eligible for parole prior to fifteen years, nor shall it limit in any way the parole board's power to grant parole prior to fifteen years.

            6. Nothing in this section shall limit the review of any offender's case who has applied for executive clemency, nor shall it limit in any way the governor's power to grant clemency.

            7. It shall be the responsibility of the offender to petition the board for a hearing under this section.

            8. A person commits the crime of perjury if he or she, with the purpose to deceive, knowingly makes a false witness statement to the board. Perjury under this section shall be a class [C] D felony.

            9. In cases where witness statements alleging physical or sexual domestic violence are in conflict as to whether such violence occurred or was continual and substantial in nature, the history of such alleged violence shall be established by other corroborative evidence in addition to witness statements, as provided by subsection 1 of this section. A contradictory statement of the victim shall not be deemed a conflicting statement for purposes of this section.

            217.703. 1. The division of probation and parole shall award earned compliance credits to any offender who is:

            (1) Not subject to lifetime supervision under sections 217.735 and 559.106 or otherwise found to be ineligible to earn credits by a court pursuant to subsection 2 of this section;

            (2) On probation, parole, or conditional release for an offense listed in chapter [195] 579 or for a class C, [or] D, or E felony, excluding the offenses of aggravated stalking, sexual assault, deviate sexual assault, assault in the second degree under subdivision (2) of subsection 1 of section 565.060, sexual misconduct involving a child, endangering the welfare of a child in the first degree under subdivision (2) of subsection 1 of section 568.045, incest, invasion of privacy, and abuse of a child;

            (3) Supervised by the board; and

            (4) In compliance with the conditions of supervision imposed by the sentencing court or board.

            2. If an offender was placed on probation, parole, or conditional release for an offense of:

            (1) Involuntary manslaughter in the first degree;

            (2) Involuntary manslaughter in the second degree;

(3) Assault in the second degree except under subdivision (2) of subsection 1 of section 565.060;

            (4) Domestic assault in the second degree;

            (5) Assault of a law enforcement officer in the second degree;

            (6) Statutory rape in the second degree;

            (7) Statutory sodomy in the second degree;

            (8) Endangering the welfare of a child in the first degree under subdivision (1) of subsection 1 of section 568.045; or

            (9) Any case in which the defendant is found guilty of a felony offense under chapter 571,

the sentencing court may, upon its own motion or a motion of the prosecuting or circuit attorney, make a finding that the offender is ineligible to earn compliance credits because the nature and circumstances of the offense or the history and character of the offender indicate that a longer term of probation, parole, or conditional release is necessary for the protection of the public or the guidance of the offender. The motion may be made any time prior to the first month in which the person may earn compliance credits under this section. The offender's ability to earn credits shall be suspended until the court or board makes its finding. If the court or board finds that the offender is eligible for earned compliance credits, the credits shall begin to accrue on the first day of the next calendar month following the issuance of the decision.

            3. Earned compliance credits shall reduce the term of probation, parole, or conditional release by thirty days for each full calendar month of compliance with the terms of supervision. Credits shall begin to accrue for eligible offenders after the first full calendar month of supervision or on October 1, 2012, if the offender began a term of probation, parole, or conditional release before September 1, 2012.

            4. For the purposes of this section, the term "compliance" shall mean the absence of an initial violation report submitted by a probation or parole officer during a calendar month, or a motion to revoke or motion to suspend filed by a prosecuting or circuit attorney, against the offender.

            5. Credits shall not accrue during any calendar month in which a violation report has been submitted or a motion to revoke or motion to suspend has been filed, and shall be suspended pending the outcome of a hearing, if a hearing is held. If no hearing is held or the court or board finds that the violation did not occur, then the offender shall be deemed to be in compliance and shall begin earning credits on the first day of the next calendar month following the month in which the report was submitted or the motion was filed. All earned credits shall be rescinded if the court or board revokes the probation or parole or the court places the offender in a department program under subsection 4 of section 559.036. Earned credits shall continue to be suspended for a period of time during which the court or board has suspended the term of probation, parole, or release, and shall begin to accrue on the first day of the next calendar month following the lifting of the suspension.

            6. Offenders who are deemed by the division to be absconders shall not earn credits. For purposes of this subsection, "absconder" shall mean an offender under supervision who has left such offender's place of residency without the permission of the offender's supervising officer for the purpose of avoiding supervision. An offender shall no longer be deemed an absconder when such offender is available for active supervision.

            7. Notwithstanding subsection 2 of section 217.730 to the contrary, once the combination of time served in custody, if applicable, time served on probation, parole, or conditional release, and earned compliance credits satisfy the total term of probation, parole, or conditional release, the board or sentencing court shall order final discharge of the offender, so long as the offender has completed at least two years of his or her probation or parole, which shall include any time served in custody under section 217.718 and sections 559.036 and 559.115.

            8. The award or rescission of any credits earned under this section shall not be subject to appeal or any motion for postconviction relief.

            9. At least twice a year, the division shall calculate the number of months the offender has remaining on his or her term of probation, parole, or conditional release, taking into consideration any earned compliance credits, and notify the offender of the length of the remaining term.

            10. No less than sixty days before the date of final discharge, the division shall notify the sentencing court, the board, and, for probation cases, the circuit or prosecuting attorney of the impending discharge. If the sentencing court, the board, or the circuit or prosecuting attorney upon receiving such notice does not take any action under subsection 5 of this section, the offender shall be discharged under subsection 7 of this section.

            221.025. 1. As an alternative to confinement, an individual may be placed on electronic monitoring pursuant to subsection 1 of section 544.455 or subsection 6 of section 557.011, with such terms and conditions as a court shall deem just and appropriate under the circumstances.             2. A judge may, in his or her discretion, credit any such period of electronic monitoring against any period of confinement or incarceration ordered, however, electronic monitoring shall not be considered to be in custody or incarceration for purposes of eligibility for the MO HealthNet program, nor shall it be considered confinement in a correctional center or private or county jail for purposes of determining responsibility for the individual's health care.

            3. This section shall not authorize a court to place an individual on electronic monitoring in lieu of the required imprisonment, community service, or court-ordered treatment program involving community service, if that individual is a prior, persistent, aggravated, [or] chronic, or habitual offender sentenced pursuant to section [577.023] 577.001.

            221.111. 1. No person shall knowingly deliver, attempt to deliver, have in such person's possession, deposit or conceal in or about the premises of any county or private jail or other county correctional facility:

            (1) Any controlled substance as that term is defined by law, except upon the written prescription of a licensed physician, dentist, or veterinarian;

            (2) Any other alkaloid of any kind or any spiritous or malt liquor;

            (3) Any article or item of personal property which a prisoner is prohibited by law or rule made pursuant to section 221.060 from receiving or possessing, except as herein provided;

            (4) Any gun, knife, weapon, or other article or item of personal property that may be used in such manner as to endanger the safety or security of the institution or as to endanger the life or limb of any prisoner or employee thereof.

            2. The violation of subdivision (1) of subsection 1 of this section shall be a class [C] D felony; the violation of subdivision (2) of this section shall be a class [D] E felony; the violation of subdivision (3) of this section shall be a class A misdemeanor; and the violation of subdivision (4) of this section shall be a class B felony.

            3. The chief operating officer of a county jail or other county correctional facility or the administrator of a private jail may deny visitation privileges to or refer to the county prosecuting attorney for prosecution any person who knowingly delivers, attempts to deliver, has in such person's possession, deposits or conceals in or about the premises of such jail or facility any personal item which is prohibited by rule or regulation of such jail or facility. Such rules or regulations, including a list of personal items allowed in the jail or facility, shall be prominently posted for viewing both inside and outside such jail or facility in an area accessible to any visitor, and shall be made available to any person requesting such rule or regulation. Violation of this subsection shall be an infraction if not covered by other statutes.

            221.353. 1. A person commits the crime of damage to jail property if such person knowingly damages any city, county, or private jail building or other jail property.

            2. A person commits the crime of damage to jail property if such person knowingly starts a fire in any city, county, or private jail building or other jail property.

            3. Damage to jail property is a class [D] E felony.

            252.235. The sale, taking for sale or possession for sale of any species of fish or wildlife, or parts thereof, which shall include eggs, which have been taken or possessed in violation of the rules and regulations of the commission, is prohibited. Any person violating the provisions of this section shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor for the first offense if the sale amounts to less than five hundred dollars. Any person violating the provisions of this section shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony for the second and subsequent offense if the sale amounts to less than five hundred dollars. Any person violating the provisions of this section shall be guilty of a class [C] D felony for the first and all subsequent offenses if the sale amounts to five hundred dollars or more. "Sale" means the exchange of an amount of money, other negotiable instruments, or property of value received by the person or persons selling the prohibited species. "Sale", for purposes of this section, shall also mean the intention to exchange an amount of money, other negotiable instruments or property of value for a prohibited species. For the purposes of this section "property" is defined by section 570.010 and value shall be ascertained as set forth in section 570.020.

            253.080. 1. The director of the department of natural resources may construct, establish and operate suitable public services, privileges, conveniences and facilities on any land, site or object under the department's jurisdiction and control, and may charge and collect reasonable fees for the use of the same. The director may charge reasonable fees for supplying services on state park areas. Any facilities so constructed under this provision shall only be done by appropriated funds.

            2. The director may award by contract to any suitable person, persons, corporation or association the right to construct, establish and operate public services, privileges, conveniences and facilities on any land, site or object under the department's control for a period not to exceed twenty-five years with a renewal option, and may supervise and regulate any and all charges and fees of operations by private enterprise for supplying services and operating facilities on state park areas.

            3. All contracts awarded under this section shall be entered into upon the basis of competitive sealed bids. A sworn financial statement shall accompany each bid, and all contracts shall be let by the director at a regular meeting after public notice of the time of the letting. All bids submitted prior to the opening of the meeting shall be considered. Advertisements for bids in daily or weekly newspapers shall be made by the director. The director shall accept the bid most favorable to the state from a responsible and reputable person but may, for good cause, reject any bid.

            4. The director shall not enter into a contract or a renewal for a contract as provided in subsection 2 of this section for a period in excess of ten years unless the director determines that the extended contract period is necessary to allow the contractor to make substantial capital or other improvements to the site subject to the contract and such improvements are of sufficient value to the state to necessitate the longer contract term.

            5. A good and sufficient bond conditioned upon the faithful performance of the contract and compliance with this law shall be required of all contractors, except that if the contractor states he is unable to provide a bond, the contractor shall place a cash reserve in an escrow account in an amount proportional to the volume of the contractor's business on the lands controlled by the department of natural resources.

            6. Any person who contracts under this section with the state shall keep true and accurate records of his receipts and disbursements arising out of the performance of the contract and shall permit the division of parks and recreation of the department of natural resources and the state director of revenue to audit them. The division of parks and recreation of the department of natural resources and the state director of revenue shall audit the receipts and disbursement of each contract once every two years and upon the expiration of the contract. For the purpose of subsection 5 of this section and this subsection, no contract shall be deemed to extend to operations or management in more than one state park.

            7. No person shall be permitted to offer or advertise merchandise or other goods for sale or hire, or to maintain any concession, or use any park facilities, buildings, trails, roads or other state park property for commercial use except by written permission or concession contract with the department of natural resources; except that, the provisions of this subsection shall not apply to the normal and customary use of public roads by commercial and noncommercial organizations for the purpose of transporting persons or vehicles, including, but not limited to, canoes.

            260.207. 1. The department of natural resources shall not issue a permit to any person for the operation of any solid waste processing facility or solid waste disposal area pursuant to sections 260.200 to 260.345 if such person has been determined to habitually violate Missouri environmental statutes, the environmental statutes of other states or federal statutes pertaining to environmental control or if such person has had three or more convictions, which convictions occurred after August 28, 1990, and within any five-year period, within a court of the United States or of any state other than Missouri or has had two or more convictions within Missouri, after August 28, 1990, and within any five-year period, for any crimes or criminal acts, an element of which involves restraint of trade, price-fixing, intimidation of the customers of another person or for engaging in any other acts which may have the effect of restraining or limiting competition concerning activities regulated under this chapter or similar laws of other states or the federal government; except that convictions for violations by entities purchased or acquired by an applicant or permittee which occurred prior to the purchase or acquisition shall not be included. For the purpose of this section the term "person" shall include any business organization or entity, successor corporation, partnership or subsidiary of any business organization or entity, and the owners and officers thereof, of the entity submitting the application.

            2. The director shall suspend, revoke or not renew the permit of any person with a permit to operate any solid waste processing facility or solid waste disposal area if such person has been determined by the department of natural resources to habitually violate the requirements of the Missouri environmental statutes, of the environmental statutes of other states, or of federal statutes pertaining to environmental control, or if such person has had three or more convictions in any court of the United States or of any state other than Missouri or has had two or more convictions within Missouri of crimes as specified herein, if such convictions occur after August 28, 1990, and within any five-year period.

            3. Any person applying for a permit to operate any facility pursuant to sections 260.200 to 260.345 shall notify the director of any conviction for a crime which would have the effect of limiting competition. Any person holding a permit shall notify the department of any such conviction of any crime as specified herein within thirty days of the conviction. Failure to notify the director is a class [D] E felony and subject to a fine of one thousand dollars per day for each day unreported.

            4. Any person who has had a permit denied, revoked or not renewed due to the provisions of this section may apply to the director for reinstatement after five years have elapsed from the time of the most recent conviction.

            260.208. No city, county, district, authority or other political subdivision of this state shall enter into a contract or other arrangement for solid waste management services with any person who has been convicted as set out in section 260.207, which convictions occur after August 28, 1990, and within any five-year period, except that the prohibitions of this section shall not apply to any person convicted as provided in section 260.207 after five years have elapsed from the most recent conviction. Any person submitting a bid to a city, county, district, authority or other political subdivision for a contract to provide solid waste management services who, after August 28, 1990, has been convicted of crimes which have the effect of limiting competition as set out in section 260.207, shall notify the city, county, district, authority or other political subdivision of such conviction with the submission of the bid. Any person with a contract for solid waste management services with a city, county, district, authority or other political subdivision of this state who is convicted of crimes which would have the effect of limiting competition as set out in section 260.207, shall notify the city, county, district, authority or other political subdivision of such conviction within thirty days of the conviction. Failure to notify the city, county, district, authority, or other political subdivision as required in this section is a class [D] E felony and subject to a fine of one thousand dollars per day for each day unreported.

            260.211. 1. A person commits the offense of criminal disposition of demolition waste if he purposely or knowingly disposes of or causes the disposal of more than two thousand pounds or four hundred cubic feet of such waste on property in this state other than in a solid waste processing facility or solid waste disposal area having a permit as required by section 260.205; provided that, this subsection shall not prohibit the use or require a solid waste permit for the use of solid wastes in normal farming operations or in the processing or manufacturing of other products in a manner that will not create a public nuisance or adversely affect public health and shall not prohibit the disposal of or require a solid waste permit for the disposal by an individual of solid wastes resulting from his or her own residential activities on property owned or lawfully occupied by him or her when such wastes do not thereby create a public nuisance or adversely affect the public health. Demolition waste shall not include clean fill or vegetation. Criminal disposition of demolition waste is a class [D] E felony. In addition to other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of criminal disposition of demolition waste is subject to a fine not to exceed twenty thousand dollars, except as provided below. The magnitude of the fine shall reflect the seriousness or potential seriousness of the threat to human health and the environment posed by the violation, but shall not exceed twenty thousand dollars, except that if a court of competent jurisdiction determines that the person responsible for illegal disposal of demolition waste under this subsection did so for remuneration as a part of an ongoing commercial activity, the court shall set a fine which reflects the seriousness or potential threat to human health and the environment which at least equals the economic gain obtained by the person, and such fine may exceed the maximum established herein.

            2. Any person who purposely or knowingly disposes of or causes the disposal of more than two thousand pounds or four hundred cubic feet of his or her personal construction or demolition waste on his or her own property shall be guilty of a class [C] D misdemeanor. If such person receives any amount of money, goods, or services in connection with permitting any other person to dispose of construction or demolition waste on his or her property, such person shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            3. The court shall order any person convicted of illegally disposing of demolition waste upon his or her own property for remuneration to clean up such waste and, if he or she fails to clean up the waste or if he or she is unable to clean up the waste, the court may notify the county recorder of the county containing the illegal disposal site. The notice shall be designed to be recorded on the record.

            4. The court may order restitution by requiring any person convicted under this section to clean up any demolition waste he illegally dumped and the court may require any such person to perform additional community service by cleaning up and properly disposing of demolition waste illegally dumped by other persons.

            5. The prosecutor of any county or circuit attorney of any city not within a county may, by information or indictment, institute a prosecution for any violation of the provisions of this section.

            6. Any person shall be guilty of conspiracy as defined in section 564.016 if he or she knows or should have known that his or her agent or employee has committed the acts described in sections 260.210 to 260.212 while engaged in the course of employment.

            260.212. 1. A person commits the offense of criminal disposition of solid waste if he purposely or knowingly disposes of or causes the disposal of more than five hundred pounds or one hundred cubic feet of commercial or residential solid waste on property in this state other than a solid waste processing facility or solid waste disposal area having a permit as required by section 260.205; provided that, this subsection shall not prohibit the use or require a solid waste permit for the use of solid wastes in normal farming operations or in the processing or manufacturing of other products in a manner that will not create a public nuisance or adversely affect public health and shall not prohibit the disposal of or require a solid waste permit for the disposal by an individual of solid wastes resulting from his or her own residential activities on property owned or lawfully occupied by him or her when such wastes do not thereby create a public nuisance or adversely affect the public health. Criminal disposition of solid waste is a class [D] E felony. In addition to other penalties prescribed by law, a person convicted of criminal disposition of solid waste is subject to a fine, and the magnitude of the fine shall reflect the seriousness or potential seriousness of the threat to human health and the environment posed by the violation, but shall not exceed twenty thousand dollars, except that if a court of competent jurisdiction determines that the person responsible for illegal disposal of solid waste under this subsection did so for remuneration as a part of an ongoing commercial activity, the court shall set a fine which reflects the seriousness or potential threat to human health and the environment which at least equals the economic gain obtained by the person, and such fine may exceed the maximum established herein.

            2. The court shall order any person convicted of illegally disposing of solid waste upon his or her own property for remuneration to clean up such waste and, if he or she fails to clean up the waste or if he or she is unable to clean up the waste, the court may notify the county recorder of the county containing the illegal disposal site. The notice shall be designed to be recorded on the record.

            3. The court may order restitution by requiring any person convicted under this section to clean up any commercial or residential solid waste he illegally dumped and the court may require any such person to perform additional community service by cleaning up commercial or residential solid waste illegally dumped by other persons.

            4. The prosecutor of any county or circuit attorney of any city not within a county may, by information or indictment, institute a prosecution for any violation of the provisions of this section.

            5. Any person shall be guilty of conspiracy as defined in section 564.016 if he knows or should have known that his or her agent or employee has committed the acts described in sections 260.210 to 260.212 while engaged in the course of employment.

            260.379. 1. The department of natural resources shall not issue a permit to any person for the operation of any facility or issue any license to any person under the authority of sections 260.350 to 260.434, if such person has had three or more convictions, which convictions occurred after July 9, 1990, and within any five-year period within the courts of the United States or of any state except Missouri or had two or more convictions within a Missouri court after July 9, 1990, and within any five-year period, for any crimes or criminal acts, an element of which involves restraint of trade, price-fixing, intimidation of the customers of any person or for engaging in any other acts which may have the effect of restraining or limiting competition concerning activities regulated under this chapter or similar laws of other states or the federal government; except that convictions for violations by entities purchased or acquired by an applicant or permittee which occurred prior to the purchase or acquisition shall not be included. For the purpose of this section, the term "person" shall include any business organization or entity, successor corporation, partnership or subsidiary of any business organization or entity, and the owners and officers thereof, or the entity submitting the application.

            2. The director shall suspend, revoke or not renew the permit or license of any person issued pursuant to sections 260.350 to 260.434, if such person has had two or more convictions in any court of the United States or of any state other than Missouri or two or more convictions within a Missouri court for crimes as specified herein if such conviction occurred after July 9, 1990, and within any five-year period.

            3. Any person applying for a permit or license under sections 260.350 to 260.434 shall notify the director of any conviction for any act which would have the effect of limiting competition. Any person with a permit or license shall notify the department of any such conviction within thirty days of the conviction or plea. Failure to notify the director is a class [D] E felony and subject to a fine of one thousand dollars per day for each day unreported.

            4. Provided that after a period of five years after a permit has been revoked under the provisions of this section, the person, firm or corporation affected may apply for rehabilitation and reinstatement to the director of the department. The department shall promulgate the necessary rules and regulations for rehabilitation and reinstatement. The time period for same shall not exceed five years.

            270.260. 1. Any person who recklessly or knowingly releases any swine to live in a wild or feral state upon any public land or private land not completely enclosed by a fence capable of containing such animals is guilty of a class A misdemeanor. Each swine so released shall be a separate offense.

            2. Every person who has previously pled guilty to or been found guilty of violating the provisions of this section, committed on two separate occasions where such offense occurred within ten years of the date of the occurrence of the present offense and who subsequently pleads guilty to or is found guilty of violating this section shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            3. Nothing in this section shall be construed to criminalize the accidental escape of domestic swine.

            276.421. 1. All applications shall be accompanied by a true and accurate financial statement of the applicant, prepared within six months of the date of application, setting forth all the assets, liabilities and net worth of the applicant. In the event that the applicant has been engaged in business as a grain dealer for at least one year, the financial statement shall set forth the aggregate dollar amount paid for grain purchased in Missouri and those states with whom Missouri has entered into contracts or agreements as authorized by section 276.566 during the last completed fiscal period of the applicant. In the event the applicant has been engaged in business for less than one year or has not previously engaged in business as a grain dealer, the financial statement shall set forth the estimated aggregate dollar amount to be paid for grain purchased in Missouri and those states with whom Missouri has entered into contracts or agreements as authorized by section 276.566 during the applicant's initial fiscal period. All applications shall also be accompanied by a true and accurate statement of income and expenses for the applicant's most recently completed fiscal year. The financial statements required by this chapter shall be prepared in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles; except that the director may promulgate rules allowing for the valuation of assets by competent appraisal.

            2. The financial statement required by subsection 1 of this section shall be audited or reviewed by a certified public accountant. The financial statement may not be audited or reviewed by the applicant, or an employee of the applicant, if an individual, or, if the applicant is a corporation or partnership, by an officer, shareholder, partner, or a direct employee of the applicant.

            3. The director may require any additional information or verification with respect to the financial resources of the applicant as he deems necessary for the effective administration of this chapter. The director may promulgate rules setting forth minimum standards of acceptance for the various types of financial statements filed in accordance with the provisions of this chapter. The director may promulgate rules requiring a statement of retained earnings, a statement of changes in financial position, and notes and disclosures to the financial statements for all licensed grain dealers or all grain dealers required to be licensed. The additional information or verification referred to herein may include, but is not limited to, requiring that the financial statement information be reviewed or audited in accordance with standards established by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants.

            4. All grain dealers shall provide the director with a copy of all financial statements and updates to financial statements utilized to secure the bonds required by sections 276.401 to 276.582.

            5. All financial statements submitted to the director for the purposes of this chapter shall be accompanied by a certification by the applicant or the chief executive officer of the applicant, subject to the penalty provision set forth in subsection 4 of section 276.536, that to the best of his or her knowledge and belief the financial statement accurately reflects the financial condition of the applicant for the fiscal period covered in the statement.

            6. Any person who knowingly prepares or assists in the preparation of an inaccurate or false financial statement which is submitted to the director for the purposes of this chapter, or who during the course of providing bookkeeping services or in reviewing or auditing a financial statement which is submitted to the director for the purposes of this chapter, becomes aware of false information in the financial statement and does not disclose in notes accompanying the financial statements that such false information exists, or does not disassociate himself from the financial statements prior to submission, is guilty of a class [C] D felony. Additionally, such persons are liable for any damages incurred by sellers of grain selling to a grain dealer who is licensed or allowed to maintain his or her license based upon inaccuracies or falsifications contained in the financial statement.

            7. Any licensed grain dealer or applicant for a grain dealer's license shall maintain a minimum net worth equal to five percent of annual grain purchases as set forth in the financial statements required by this chapter. If the dealer or applicant is deficient in meeting this net worth requirement, he or she must post additional bond as required in section 276.436.

            8. (1) Any licensed grain dealer or applicant for a grain dealer's license shall have and maintain current assets at least equal to one hundred percent of current liabilities. The financial statement required by this chapter shall set forth positive working capital in the form of a current ratio of the total adjusted current assets to the total adjusted current liabilities of at least one to one.

            (2) The director may allow applicants to offset negative working capital by increasing the grain dealer surety bond required by section 276.426 up to the total amount of negative working capital at the discretion of the director.

            (3) Adjusted current assets shall be calculated by deducting from the stated current assets shown on the financial statement submitted by the applicant any current asset resulting from notes receivable from related persons, accounts receivable from related persons, stock subscriptions receivable, and any other related person receivables.

            (4) A disallowed current asset shall be netted against any related liability and the net result, if an asset, shall be subtracted from the current assets.

            276.536. 1. Upon conviction, any person who does any of the following is guilty of a class B misdemeanor:

            (1) Engaging in the business of being a grain dealer without securing a license prior to engaging in said business. If a grain dealer has been charged, and has paid, a penalty fee for operating without a license as set forth in section 276.411, the grain dealer may not be charged with a class B misdemeanor for operating without a license for the time period covered by the penalty fee;

            (2) Violating any of the provisions of sections 276.401 to 276.581;

            (3) Impeding, hindering, obstructing, or otherwise preventing or attempting to prevent the director, the director's designated representative, employees, or any auditor in the performance of his or her duty in connection with sections 276.401 to 276.581 or the regulations promulgated pursuant thereto;

            (4) On the part of any person, refusing to permit inspection of his or her premises, books, accounts or records as provided in sections 276.401 to 276.581.

            2. In case of a continuing violation, each day a violation occurs constitutes a separate and distinct offense.

            3. It shall be the duty of the attorney general or each prosecuting attorney to whom any violation of sections 276.401 to 276.581 is reported to cause appropriate proceedings under this section to be instituted and prosecuted in a court of competent jurisdiction without delay. Before a violation is reported for prosecution, the director may give the grain dealer an opportunity to present his or her views at an informal hearing. In the event the director determines that a prosecutor to whom a violation has been reported has failed to institute appropriate proceedings, the director may make a written report of the failure to institute proceedings to the attorney general. The attorney general may investigate the circumstances which resulted in the report. If the attorney general determines additional proceedings are appropriate, he or she shall cause such proceedings to be instituted. When the attorney general causes such a proceeding to be instituted, he or she shall have all the powers and rights of the office of the prosecuting attorney to whom the violation was originally reported. Such powers and rights are restricted to the prosecution of the specific case reported.

            4. A grain dealer licensed or required to be licensed under sections 276.401 to 276.581, or any officer, agent, or servant of such grain dealer who files false records, scale tickets, financial papers or accounts with the director, or who withholds records, scale tickets, financial papers or accounts from the director, or who alters records, scale tickets, financial papers or accounts in order to conceal amounts owed to sellers of grain or actual amounts of grain received and paid or not paid for or for the purpose of in any way misleading department auditors and officials is, upon conviction, guilty of a class [C] D felony.

            5. Any duly authorized officer or employee appointed under the provisions of sections 276.401 to 276.581 who neglects his or her duty, or who knowingly or carelessly inspects, grades, tests, or weighs any grain improperly, conducts an inspection improperly, intentionally falsifies any inspection report, or intentionally gives false information, or who accepts any money or other valuable consideration, directly or indirectly, for any neglect of duty as such duly authorized officer or employee in the performance of his or her duties as such officer or employee is deemed guilty of a class B misdemeanor.

            277.180. 1. Any person who offers a bribe to any livestock market or sale operator or market veterinarian for the purpose of inducing such operator or veterinarian to violate the provisions of this chapter shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            2. Nothing contained in this chapter shall be construed to authorize any private cause of action, or to establish any substitute principal of a law in connection therewith.

            285.306. Every employee shall complete the withholding form referred to in section 285.300. Any such employee who refuses to complete the withholding form shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            285.308. Any employee who states on the withholding form that he does not owe child support when such employee knowingly owes child support pursuant to a valid court order or administrative order is guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            287.128. 1. It shall be unlawful for any person to knowingly present or cause to be presented any false or fraudulent claim for the payment of benefits pursuant to a workers' compensation claim.

            2. It shall be unlawful for any insurance company or self-insurer in this state to knowingly and intentionally refuse to comply with known and legally indisputable compensation obligations with intent to defraud.

            3. It shall be unlawful for any person to:

            (1) Knowingly present multiple claims for the same occurrence with intent to defraud;

            (2) Knowingly assist, abet, solicit or conspire with:

            (a) Any person who knowingly presents any false or fraudulent claim for the payment of benefits;

            (b) Any person who knowingly presents multiple claims for the same occurrence with an intent to defraud; or

            (c) Any person who purposefully prepares, makes or subscribes to any writing with the intent to present or use the same, or to allow it to be presented in support of any such claim;

            (3) Knowingly make or cause to be made any false or fraudulent claim for payment of a health care benefit;

            (4) Knowingly submit a claim for a health care benefit which was not used by, or on behalf of, the claimant;

            (5) Knowingly present multiple claims for payment of the same health care benefit with an intent to defraud;

            (6) Knowingly make or cause to be made any false or fraudulent material statement or material representation for the purpose of obtaining or denying any benefit;

            (7) Knowingly make or cause to be made any false or fraudulent statements with regard to entitlement to benefits with the intent to discourage an injured worker from making a legitimate claim;

            (8) Knowingly make or cause to be made a false or fraudulent material statement to an investigator of the division in the course of the investigation of fraud or noncompliance. For the purposes of subdivisions (6), (7), and (8) of this subsection, the term "statement" includes any notice, proof of injury, bill for services, payment for services, hospital or doctor records, X-ray or test results.

            4. Any person violating any of the provisions of subsection 1 or 2 of this section shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony. In addition, the person shall be liable to the state of Missouri for a fine up to ten thousand dollars or double the value of the fraud whichever is greater. Any person violating any of the provisions of subsection 3 of this section shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor and the person shall be liable to the state of Missouri for a fine up to ten thousand dollars. Any person who has previously pled guilty to or has been found guilty of violating any of the provisions of subsection 1, 2 or 3 of this section and who subsequently violates any of the provisions of subsection 1, 2 or 3 of this section shall be guilty of a class [C] D felony.

            5. It shall be unlawful for any person, company, or other entity to prepare or provide an invalid certificate of insurance as proof of workers' compensation insurance. Any person violating any of the provisions of this subsection shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony and, in addition, shall be liable to the state of Missouri for a fine up to ten thousand dollars or double the value of the fraud, whichever is greater.

            6. Any person who knowingly misrepresents any fact in order to obtain workers' compensation insurance at less than the proper rate for that insurance shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor. Any person who has previously pled guilty to or has been found guilty of violating any of the provisions of this section and who subsequently violates any of the provisions of this section shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            7. Any employer who knowingly fails to insure his liability pursuant to this chapter shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor and, in addition, shall be liable to the state of Missouri for a penalty in an amount up to three times the annual premium the employer would have paid had such employer been insured or up to fifty thousand dollars, whichever amount is greater. Any person who has previously pled guilty to or has been found guilty of violating any of the provisions of this section and who subsequently violates any of the provisions of this section shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            8. Any person may file a complaint alleging fraud or noncompliance with this chapter with a legal advisor in the division of workers' compensation. The legal advisor shall refer the complaint to the fraud and noncompliance unit within the division. The unit shall investigate all complaints and present any finding of fraud or noncompliance to the director, who may refer the file to the attorney general. The attorney general may prosecute any fraud or noncompliance associated with this chapter. All costs incurred by the attorney general associated with any investigation and prosecution pursuant to this subsection shall be paid out of the workers' compensation fund. Any fines or penalties levied and received as a result of any prosecution under this section shall be paid to the workers' compensation fund. Any restitution ordered as a part of the judgment shall be paid to the person or persons who were defrauded.

            9. Any and all reports, records, tapes, photographs, and similar materials or documentation submitted by any person, including the department of insurance, financial institutions and professional registration, to the fraud and noncompliance unit or otherwise obtained by the unit pursuant to this section, used to conduct an investigation for any violation under this chapter, shall be considered confidential and not subject to the requirements of chapter 610. Nothing in this subsection prohibits the fraud and noncompliance unit from releasing records used to conduct an investigation to the local, state, or federal law enforcement authority or federal or state agency conducting an investigation, upon written request.

            10. There is hereby established in the division of workers' compensation a fraud and noncompliance administrative unit responsible for investigating incidences of fraud and failure to comply with the provisions of this chapter.

            11. Any prosecution for a violation of the provisions of this section or section 287.129 shall be commenced within three years after discovery of the offense by an aggrieved party or by a person who has a legal duty to represent an aggrieved party and who is not a party to the offense. As used in this subsection, the term "person who has a legal duty to represent an aggrieved party" shall mean the attorney general or the prosecuting attorney having jurisdiction to prosecute the action.

            12. By January 1, 2006, the attorney general shall forward to the division and the members of the general assembly the first edition of an annual report of the costs of prosecuting fraud and noncompliance under this chapter. The report shall include the number of cases filed with the attorney general by county by the fraud and noncompliance unit, the number of cases prosecuted by county by the attorney general, fines and penalties levied and received, and all incidental costs.

            287.129. 1. A health care provider commits a fraudulent workers' compensation insurance act if he knowingly and with intent to defraud presents, causes to be presented, or prepares with knowledge or belief that it will be presented, to or by an insurer, purported insurer, broker, or any agent thereof, any claim for payment or other benefit which involves any one or more of the following false billing practices:

            (1) "Unbundling" an insurance claim by claiming a number of medical procedures were performed instead of a single comprehensive procedure;

            (2) "Upcoding" a medical, hospital or rehabilitative insurance claim by claiming that a more serious or extensive procedure was performed than was actually performed;

            (3) "Exploding" a medical, hospital or rehabilitative insurance claim by claiming a series of tests were performed on a single sample of blood, urine, or other bodily fluid, when actually the series of tests were part of one battery of tests; or

            (4) "Duplicating" a medical, hospital or rehabilitative insurance claim made by a health care provider by resubmitting the claim through another health care provider in which the original health care provider has an ownership interest. Nothing in this section shall prohibit providers from making good faith efforts to ensure that claims for reimbursement are coded to reflect the proper diagnosis and treatment.

            2. If, by its own inquiries or as a result of complaints, the department of insurance, financial institutions and professional registration has reason to believe that a person has engaged in, or is engaging in, any fraudulent workers' compensation insurance act contained in this section, it may administer oaths and affirmations, serve subpoenas ordering the attendance of witnesses or proffering of matter, and collect evidence.

            3. If the matter that the department of insurance, financial institutions and professional registration seeks to obtain by request is located outside the state, the person so requested may make it available to the division or its representative to examine the matter at the place where it is located. The department may designate representatives, including officials of the state in which the matter is located, to inspect the matter on its behalf, and it may respond to similar requests from officials of other states.

            4. Any person violating any of the provisions of subsection 1 of this section is guilty of a class A misdemeanor and the person shall be liable to the state of Missouri for a fine up to twenty thousand dollars. Any person who has previously pled guilty to or has been found guilty of violating any of the provisions of subsection 1 of this section and who subsequently violates any of the provisions of subsection 1 of this section is guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            288.250. 1. Information obtained from any employing unit or individual pursuant to the administration of this law shall be held confidential and shall not be published, further disclosed, or be open to public inspection in any manner revealing the individual's or employing unit's identity, but any claimant or employing unit or their authorized representative shall be supplied with information from the division's records to the extent necessary for the proper preparation and presentation of any claim for unemployment compensation benefits or protest of employer liability. Further, upon receipt of a written request from a claimant or his or her authorized representative, the division shall supply information previously submitted to the division by the claimant, the claimant's wage history and the claimant's benefit payment history. In addition, upon receipt of a written request from an authorized representative of an employing unit, the division shall supply information previously submitted to the division by the employing unit, and information concerning the payment of benefits from the employer's account and the unemployment compensation fund, including amounts paid to specific claimants. A state or federal official or agency may receive disclosures to the extent required by federal law. In the division's discretion, any other party may receive disclosures to the extent authorized by state and federal law. Any information obtained by the division in the administration of this law shall be privileged and no individual or type of organization shall be held liable for slander or libel on account of any such information.

            2. Any person who intentionally discloses or otherwise fails to protect confidential information in violation of this section shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor. For a second or subsequent violation, the person shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            288.395. Any person or entity perpetrating a fraud or misrepresentation under this chapter for which a penalty has not herein been specifically provided shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor and, in addition, shall be liable to this state for a civil penalty not to exceed the value of the fraud. Any person or entity who has previously pled guilty to or has been found guilty of perpetrating a fraud or misrepresentation under this chapter and who subsequently violated any such provisions shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            301.390. 1. No person shall sell, or offer for sale, or shall knowingly have the custody or possession of a motor vehicle, vehicle part, boat, outboard motor, trailer, motor vehicle tire, piece of farm machinery, farm implement, or piece of construction equipment on which the original manufacturer's number or other distinguishing number has been destroyed, removed, covered, altered or defaced, and no person shall sell, offer for sale, or knowingly have the custody or possession of a motor vehicle or trailer having no manufacturer's number or other original number, or distinguishing number. Every motor vehicle and trailer shall have an original manufacturer's number or other distinguishing number assigned by the manufacturer.

            2. Every peace officer who has probable cause to believe and has knowledge of a motor vehicle, vehicle part, boat, outboard motor, trailer, motor vehicle tire, piece of farm machinery, farm implement, or piece of construction equipment, the number of which has been removed, covered, altered, destroyed or defaced, and for which no special number has been issued, shall be authorized to immediately seize and take possession of such motor vehicle, vehicle part, boat, outboard motor, trailer, motor vehicle tire, piece of farm machinery, farm implement, or piece of construction equipment, and may arrest the supposed owner or custodian thereof and cause prosecution to be begun in a court of competent jurisdiction.

            3. The law enforcement authority having seized it shall retain custody of the motor vehicle, vehicle part, boat, outboard motor, trailer, motor vehicle tire, piece of farm machinery, farm implement, or piece of construction equipment pending the prosecution of the person arrested. If the person arrested should be found guilty, such motor vehicle, vehicle part, boat, outboard motor, trailer, motor vehicle tire, piece of farm machinery, farm implement, or piece of construction equipment shall be transferred to the custody of the court until the fine and costs of prosecution are paid. No property shall be released from the custody of the court until a special number shall have been issued by the director of revenue on an application of the supposed owner, approved by the court.

            4. In case such fine and costs not be paid within thirty days from the date of judgment, the court shall advertise and sell such motor vehicle, boat, outboard motor, vehicle part, trailer, motor vehicle tire, piece of farm machinery, farm implement, or piece of construction equipment in the manner provided by law for the sale of personal property under execution. The advertisement shall contain a description of the motor vehicle, vehicle part, boat, outboard motor, trailer, motor vehicle tire, piece of farm machinery, farm implement, or piece of construction equipment and a copy thereof shall be mailed to the director of revenue. The proceeds of such sale shall be applied, first, to the payment of the fine and costs of the prosecution and sale, and any sum remaining shall be paid by the court to the owner, and the motor vehicle, vehicle part, boat, outboard motor, trailer, motor vehicle tire, piece of farm machinery, farm implement, or piece of construction equipment shall not be delivered to the purchaser thereof until he shall first have secured a special number from the director of revenue, on the application of the purchaser, approved by the court.

            5. If at any time while such motor vehicle, vehicle part, boat, outboard motor, trailer, motor vehicle tire, piece of farm machinery, farm implement, or piece of construction equipment remains in the custody of the court or law enforcement authority having seized it, the true owner thereof shall appear and prove to the satisfaction of the court or law enforcement authority proper ownership of and entitlement to said item, it shall be returned to the owner after he has obtained from the director of revenue a special number, on application made by the owner.

            6. Violation of any provision of this section is a class [D] E felony.

            301.400. Any person who removes, covers, alters or defaces, or causes to be destroyed, removed, covered, altered or defaced, the manufacturer's number, the motor number or other distinguishing number on any motor vehicle, or number or other distinguishing number on any motor vehicle tire, piece of farm machinery, farm implement, or piece of construction equipment, the property of another, for any reason, shall be deemed guilty of a class [C] D felony.

            301.401. 1. Any person who removes, covers, alters, or defaces, or causes to be destroyed, removed, covered, altered, or defaced, the manufacturer's serial number, the motor number or other distinguishing number on special mobile equipment or special mobile equipment tires, the property of another, for any reason, shall be deemed guilty of a class [D] E felony. Further, any person who knowingly buys, sells, receives, disposes of, conceals or has in his possession special mobile equipment or special mobile equipment tires from which the manufacturer's serial number, motor number or other distinguishing number has been removed, covered, altered, defaced or destroyed shall be deemed guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            2. Every peace officer who has probable cause to believe that and has knowledge of an item of special mobile equipment on which the original manufacturer's distinguishing number has been removed, covered, altered, or defaced shall be authorized to seize immediately and to take possession of said item of special mobile equipment.

            3. If at any time while such special mobile equipment remains in the custody of the law enforcement authority having seized it, the true owner thereof shall appear and prove to the satisfaction of such law enforcement authority his ownership of and entitlement to said item of special mobile equipment, it shall be returned to said owner subject to its being made available for use in any criminal prosecution under this section.

            4. If, after twelve months, no person has appeared and proved he is the true owner of an item of special mobile equipment seized under this section, the court in which such prosecution was begun may advertise and sell said item of special mobile equipment under such terms as are reasonable. The proceeds of such sale shall be applied, first, to the payment of any expenses incurred in association with such sale; second, to the payment of the fine and costs of prosecution; and the balance, if any, shall be paid over to the county commission of the county in which the prosecution was begun for its application to that county's general revenues.

            301.559. 1. It shall be unlawful for any person to engage in business as or act as a motor vehicle dealer, boat dealer, manufacturer, boat manufacturer, public motor vehicle auction, wholesale motor vehicle auction or wholesale motor vehicle dealer without first obtaining a license from the department as required in sections 301.550 to 301.573. Any person who maintains or operates any business wherein a license is required pursuant to the provisions of sections 301.550 to 301.573, without such license, is guilty of a class A misdemeanor. Any person committing a second violation of sections 301.550 to 301.573 shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            2. All dealer licenses shall expire on December thirty-first of the designated license period. The department shall notify each person licensed under sections 301.550 to 301.573 of the date of license expiration and the amount of the fee required for renewal. The notice shall be mailed at least ninety days before the date of license expiration to the licensee's last known business address. The director shall have the authority to issue licenses valid for a period of up to two years and to stagger the license periods for administrative efficiency and equalization of workload, at the sole discretion of the director.

            3. Every manufacturer, boat manufacturer, motor vehicle dealer, wholesale motor vehicle dealer, wholesale motor vehicle auction, boat dealer or public motor vehicle auction shall make application to the department for issuance of a license. The application shall be on forms prescribed by the department and shall be issued under the terms and provisions of sections 301.550 to 301.573 and require all applicants, as a condition precedent to the issuance of a license, to provide such information as the department may deem necessary to determine that the applicant is bona fide and of good moral character, except that every application for a license shall contain, in addition to such information as the department may require, a statement to the following facts:

            (1) The name and business address, not a post office box, of the applicant and the fictitious name, if any, under which he intends to conduct his business; and if the applicant be a partnership, the name and residence address of each partner, an indication of whether the partner is a limited or general partner and the name under which the partnership business is to be conducted. In the event that the applicant is a corporation, the application shall list the names of the principal officers of the corporation and the state in which it is incorporated. Each application shall be verified by the oath or affirmation of the applicant, if an individual, or in the event an applicant is a partnership or corporation, then by a partner or officer;

            (2) Whether the application is being made for registration as a manufacturer, boat manufacturer, new motor vehicle franchise dealer, used motor vehicle dealer, wholesale motor vehicle dealer, boat dealer, wholesale motor vehicle auction or a public motor vehicle auction;

            (3) When the application is for a new motor vehicle franchise dealer, the application shall be accompanied by a copy of the franchise agreement in the registered name of the dealership setting out the appointment of the applicant as a franchise holder and it shall be signed by the manufacturer, or his authorized agent, or the distributor, or his authorized agent, and shall include a description of the make of all motor vehicles covered by the franchise. The department shall not require a copy of the franchise agreement to be submitted with each renewal application unless the applicant is now the holder of a franchise from a different manufacturer or distributor from that previously filed, or unless a new term of agreement has been entered into;

            (4) When the application is for a public motor vehicle auction, that the public motor vehicle auction has met the requirements of section 301.561.

            4. No insurance company, finance company, credit union, savings and loan association, bank or trust company shall be required to obtain a license from the department in order to sell any motor vehicle, trailer or vessel repossessed or purchased by the company on the basis of total destruction or theft thereof when the sale of the motor vehicle, trailer or vessel is in conformance with applicable title and registration laws of this state.

            5. No person shall be issued a license to conduct a public motor vehicle auction or wholesale motor vehicle auction if such person has a violation of sections 301.550 to 301.573 or other violations of chapter 301, sections 407.511 to 407.556, or [section 578.120] subsection 8 of section 578.100 which resulted in a felony conviction or finding of guilt or a violation of any federal motor vehicle laws which resulted in a felony conviction or finding of guilt.

            301.640. 1. Within five business days after the satisfaction of any lien or encumbrance of a motor vehicle or trailer, the lienholder shall release the lien or encumbrance on the certificate or a separate document, and mail or deliver the certificate or a separate document to the owner or any person who delivers to the lienholder an authorization from the owner to receive the certificate or such documentation. The release on the certificate or separate document shall be notarized. Each perfected subordinate lienholder, if any, shall release such lien or encumbrance as provided in this section for the first lienholder. The owner may cause the certificate to be mailed or delivered to the director of revenue, who shall issue a new certificate of ownership upon application and payment of the required fee. A lien or encumbrance shall be satisfied for the purposes of this section when a lienholder receives payment in full in the form of certified funds, as defined in section 381.410, or when the lienholder receives payment in full electronically or by way of electronic funds transfer, whichever first occurs.

            2. If the electronic certificate of ownership is in the possession of the director of revenue, the lienholder shall notify the director within five business days after any release of a lien and provide the director with the most current address of the owner or any person who delivers to the lienholder an authorization from the owner to receive the certificate or such documentation. The director shall note such release on the electronic certificate and if no other lien exists the director shall mail or deliver the certificate free of any lien to the owner or any person who has delivered to the lienholder an authorization from the owner to receive the certificate or such documentation from the director.

            3. If the purchase price of a motor vehicle or trailer did not exceed six thousand dollars at the time of purchase, a lien or encumbrance which was not perfected by a motor vehicle financing corporation whose net worth exceeds one hundred million dollars, or a depository institution, shall be considered satisfied within six years from the date the lien or encumbrance was originally perfected unless a new lien or encumbrance has been perfected as provided in section 301.600. This subsection does not apply to motor vehicles or trailers for which the certificate of ownership has recorded in the second lienholder portion the words "subject to future advances".

            4. Any lienholder who fails to timely comply with subsection 1 or 2 of this section shall pay to the person or persons satisfying the lien or encumbrance liquidated damages up to a maximum of two thousand five hundred dollars for each lien. Liquidated damages shall be five hundred dollars if the lienholder does not comply within five business days after satisfaction of the lien or encumbrance. Liquidated damages shall be one thousand dollars if the lienholder does not comply within ten business days after satisfaction of the lien or encumbrance. Liquidated damages shall be two thousand dollars if the lienholder does not comply within fifteen business days after satisfaction of the lien or encumbrance. Liquidated damages shall be two thousand five hundred dollars if the lienholder does not comply within twenty business days after satisfaction of the lien or encumbrance. If delivery of the certificate or other lien release is made by mail, the delivery date is the date of the postmark for purposes of this subsection. In computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by this section, the day of the act or event after which the designated period of time begins to run is not to be counted. However, the last day of the period so computed is to be included, unless it is a Saturday, Sunday, or a legal holiday, in which event the period runs until the end of the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday.

            5. Any person who knowingly and intentionally sends in a separate document releasing a lien of another without authority to do so shall be guilty of a class [C] D felony.

            302.015. Notwithstanding the provisions of the Commercial Motor Vehicle Safety Act of 1986 (Title XII of Pub. Law 99-570), the director shall have the authority to establish a license classification system, and shall not be limited to classification of the following:

            (1) Any person, other than one subject to sections 302.700 to 302.780, who operates a motor vehicle in the transportation of persons or property, and who receives compensation for such services in wages, salary, commission or fare; or who as an owner or employee operates a motor vehicle carrying passengers or property for hire; or who regularly operates a commercial motor vehicle of another person in the course of or as an incident to his or her employment, but whose principal occupation is not the operating of such motor vehicle, except that a school bus operator who obtains a school bus permit as provided in section 302.272 shall not be considered in this class;

            (2) Any person, other than such person defined in subdivision (1) of this section who is in actual physical control of a motor vehicle;

            (3) Any person, other than such person defined in subdivisions (1) and (2) of this section who is in actual physical control of a motorcycle or motortricycle.

            302.020. 1. Unless otherwise provided for by law, it shall be unlawful for any person, except those expressly exempted by section 302.080, to:

            (1) Operate any vehicle upon any highway in this state unless the person has a valid license;

            (2) Operate a motorcycle or motortricycle upon any highway of this state unless such person has a valid license that shows the person has successfully passed an examination for the operation of a motorcycle or motortricycle as prescribed by the director. The director may indicate such upon a valid license issued to such person, or shall issue a license restricting the applicant to the operation of a motorcycle or motortricycle if the actual demonstration, required by section 302.173, is conducted on such vehicle;

            (3) Authorize or knowingly permit a motorcycle or motortricycle owned by such person or under such person's control to be driven upon any highway by any person whose license does not indicate that the person has passed the examination for the operation of a motorcycle or motortricycle or has been issued an instruction permit therefor;

            (4) Operate a motor vehicle with an instruction permit or license issued to another person.

            2. Every person operating or riding as a passenger on any motorcycle or motortricycle, as defined in section 301.010, upon any highway of this state shall wear protective headgear at all times the vehicle is in motion. The protective headgear shall meet reasonable standards and specifications established by the director.

            3. Notwithstanding the provisions of section 302.340 any person convicted of violating subdivision (1) or (2) of subsection 1 of this section is guilty of a misdemeanor. A first violation of subdivision (1) or (2) of subsection 1 of this section shall be punishable [by a fine not to exceed three hundred dollars] as a class D misdemeanor. A second violation of subdivision (1) or (2) of subsection 1 of this section shall be punishable [by imprisonment in the county jail for a term not to exceed one year and/or a fine not to exceed one thousand dollars] as a class A misdemeanor. Any person convicted a third or subsequent time of violating subdivision (1) or (2) of subsection 1 of this section is guilty of a class [D] E felony. Notwithstanding the provisions of section 302.340, violation of subdivisions (3) and (4) of subsection 1 of this section is a misdemeanor, the first violation punishable [by a fine not to exceed three hundred dollars] as a class D misdemeanor, a second or subsequent violation of this section punishable as a class C misdemeanor, and the penalty for failure to wear protective headgear as required by subsection 2 of this section is an infraction for which a fine not to exceed twenty-five dollars may be imposed. Notwithstanding all other provisions of law and court rules to the contrary, no court costs shall be imposed upon any person due to such violation. No points shall be assessed pursuant to section 302.302 for a failure to wear such protective headgear. Prior pleas of guilty and prior findings of guilty shall be pleaded and proven in the same manner as required by section 558.021.

            302.060. 1. The director shall not issue any license and shall immediately deny any driving privilege:

            (1) To any person who is under the age of eighteen years, if such person operates a motor vehicle in the transportation of persons or property as classified in section 302.015;

            (2) To any person who is under the age of sixteen years, except as hereinafter provided;

            (3) To any person whose license has been suspended, during such suspension, or to any person whose license has been revoked, until the expiration of one year after such license was revoked;

            (4) To any person who is an habitual drunkard or is addicted to the use of narcotic drugs;

            (5) To any person who has previously been adjudged to be incapacitated and who at the time of application has not been restored to partial capacity;

            (6) To any person who, when required by this law to take an examination, has failed to pass such examination;

            (7) To any person who has an unsatisfied judgment against such person, as defined in chapter 303, until such judgment has been satisfied or the financial responsibility of such person, as [defined] described in section 303.120, has been established;

            (8) To any person whose application shows that the person has been convicted within one year prior to such application of violating the laws of this state relating to failure to stop after an accident and to disclose the person's identity or driving a motor vehicle without the owner's consent;

            (9) To any person who has been convicted more than twice of violating state law, or a county or municipal ordinance where the defendant was represented by or waived the right to an attorney in writing, relating to driving while intoxicated; except that, after the expiration of ten years from the date of conviction of the last offense of violating such law or ordinance relating to driving while intoxicated, a person who was so convicted may petition the circuit court of the county in which such last conviction was rendered and the court shall review the person's habits and conduct since such conviction, including the results of a criminal history check as defined in section 302.010. If the court finds that the petitioner has not been convicted, pled guilty to or been found guilty of, and has no pending charges for any offense related to alcohol, controlled substances or drugs and has no other alcohol-related enforcement contacts as defined in section 302.525 during the preceding ten years and that the petitioner's habits and conduct show such petitioner to no longer pose a threat to the public safety of this state, the court may order the director to issue a license to the petitioner if the petitioner is otherwise qualified pursuant to the provisions of sections 302.010 to 302.540. No person may obtain a license pursuant to the provisions of this subdivision through court action more than one time;

            (10) To any person who has pled guilty to or been convicted of the [crime] offense of involuntary manslaughter while operating a motor vehicle in an intoxicated condition, or to any person who has been convicted twice within a five-year period of violating state law, county or municipal ordinance of driving while intoxicated, or any other intoxication-related traffic offense as defined in section [577.023] 577.001, except that, after the expiration of five years from the date of conviction of the last offense of violating such law or ordinance, a person who was so convicted may petition the circuit court of the county in which such last conviction was rendered and the court shall review the person's habits and conduct since such conviction, including the results of a criminal history check as defined in section 302.010. If the court finds that the petitioner has not been convicted, pled guilty to, or been found guilty of, and has no pending charges for any offense related to alcohol, controlled substances, or drugs and has no other alcohol-related enforcement contacts as defined in section 302.525 during the preceding five years, and that the petitioner's habits and conduct show such petitioner to no longer pose a threat to the public safety of this state, the court may order the director to issue a license to the petitioner if the petitioner is otherwise qualified pursuant to the provisions of sections 302.010 to 302.540;

            (11) To any person who is otherwise disqualified pursuant to the provisions of sections 302.010 to 302.780, chapter 303, or section 544.046;

            (12) To any person who is under the age of eighteen years, if such person's parents or legal guardians file a certified document with the department of revenue stating that the director shall not issue such person a driver's license. Each document filed by the person's parents or legal guardians shall be made upon a form furnished by the director and shall include identifying information of the person for whom the parents or legal guardians are denying the driver's license. The document shall also contain identifying information of the person's parents or legal guardians. The document shall be certified by the parents or legal guardians to be true and correct. This provision shall not apply to any person who is legally emancipated. The parents or legal guardians may later file an additional document with the department of revenue which reinstates the person's ability to receive a driver's license.

            2. Any person whose license is reinstated under the provisions of subdivisions (9) and (10) of subsection 1 of this section shall be required to file proof with the director of revenue that any motor vehicle operated by the person is equipped with a functioning, certified ignition interlock device as a required condition of reinstatement. The ignition interlock device required for reinstatement under this subsection and for obtaining a limited driving privilege under paragraph (a) or (b) of subdivision (8) of subsection 3 of section 302.309 shall have photo identification technology and global positioning system features. The ignition interlock device shall further be required to be maintained on all motor vehicles operated by the person for a period of not less than six months immediately following the date of reinstatement. If the monthly monitoring reports show that the ignition interlock device has registered any confirmed blood alcohol concentration readings above the alcohol setpoint established by the department of transportation or that the person has tampered with or circumvented the ignition interlock device, then the period for which the person must maintain the ignition interlock device following the date of reinstatement shall be extended for an additional six months. If the person fails to maintain such proof with the director, the license shall be suspended for the remainder of the six-month period or until proof as required by this section is filed with the director. Upon the completion of the six-month period, the license shall be shown as reinstated, if the person is otherwise eligible.

            3. Any person who petitions the court for reinstatement of his or her license pursuant to subdivision (9) or (10) of subsection 1 of this section shall make application with the Missouri state highway patrol as provided in section 43.540, and shall submit two sets of fingerprints collected pursuant to standards as determined by the highway patrol. One set of fingerprints shall be used by the highway patrol to search the criminal history repository and the second set shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for searching the federal criminal history files. At the time of application, the applicant shall supply to the highway patrol the court name and case number for the court where he or she has filed his or her petition for reinstatement. The applicant shall pay the fee for the state criminal history check pursuant to section 43.530 and pay the appropriate fee determined by the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the federal criminal history record. The Missouri highway patrol, upon receipt of the results of the criminal history check, shall forward a copy of the results to the circuit court designated by the applicant and to the department. Notwithstanding the provisions of section 610.120, all records related to any criminal history check shall be accessible and available to the director and the court.

            302.060. 1. The director shall not issue any license and shall immediately deny any driving privilege:

            (1) To any person who is under the age of eighteen years, if such person operates a motor vehicle in the transportation of persons or property as classified in section 302.015;

            (2) To any person who is under the age of sixteen years, except as hereinafter provided;

            (3) To any person whose license has been suspended, during such suspension, or to any person whose license has been revoked, until the expiration of one year after such license was revoked;

            (4) To any person who is an habitual drunkard or is addicted to the use of narcotic drugs;

            (5) To any person who has previously been adjudged to be incapacitated and who at the time of application has not been restored to partial capacity;

            (6) To any person who, when required by this law to take an examination, has failed to pass such examination;

            (7) To any person who has an unsatisfied judgment against such person, as defined in chapter 303, until such judgment has been satisfied or the financial responsibility of such person, as [defined] described in section 303.120, has been established;

            (8) To any person whose application shows that the person has been convicted within one year prior to such application of violating the laws of this state relating to failure to stop after an accident and to disclose the person's identity or driving a motor vehicle without the owner's consent;

            (9) To any person who has been convicted more than twice of violating state law, or a county or municipal ordinance where the defendant was represented by or waived the right to an attorney in writing, relating to driving while intoxicated; except that, after the expiration of ten years from the date of conviction of the last offense of violating such law or ordinance relating to driving while intoxicated, a person who was so convicted may petition the circuit court of the county in which such last conviction was rendered and the court shall review the person's habits and conduct since such conviction, including the results of a criminal history check as defined in section 302.010. If the court finds that the petitioner has not been convicted, pled guilty to or been found guilty of, and has no pending charges for any offense related to alcohol, controlled substances or drugs and has no other alcohol-related enforcement contacts as defined in section 302.525 during the preceding ten years and that the petitioner's habits and conduct show such petitioner to no longer pose a threat to the public safety of this state, the court may order the director to issue a license to the petitioner if the petitioner is otherwise qualified pursuant to the provisions of sections 302.010 to 302.540. No person may obtain a license pursuant to the provisions of this subdivision through court action more than one time;

            (10) To any person who has pled guilty to or been convicted of the [crime] offense of involuntary manslaughter while operating a motor vehicle in an intoxicated condition, or to any person who has been convicted twice within a five-year period of violating state law, county or municipal ordinance of driving while intoxicated, or any other intoxication-related traffic offense as defined in section [577.023] 577.001, except that, after the expiration of five years from the date of conviction of the last offense of violating such law or ordinance, a person who was so convicted may petition the circuit court of the county in which such last conviction was rendered and the court shall review the person's habits and conduct since such conviction, including the results of a criminal history check as defined in section 302.010. If the court finds that the petitioner has not been convicted, pled guilty to, or been found guilty of, and has no pending charges for any offense related to alcohol, controlled substances, or drugs and has no other alcohol-related enforcement contacts as defined in section 302.525 during the preceding five years, and that the petitioner's habits and conduct show such petitioner to no longer pose a threat to the public safety of this state, the court may order the director to issue a license to the petitioner if the petitioner is otherwise qualified pursuant to the provisions of sections 302.010 to 302.540;

            (11) To any person who is otherwise disqualified pursuant to the provisions of sections 302.010 to 302.780, chapter 303, or section 544.046;

            (12) To any person who is under the age of eighteen years, if such person's parents or legal guardians file a certified document with the department of revenue stating that the director shall not issue such person a driver's license. Each document filed by the person's parents or legal guardians shall be made upon a form furnished by the director and shall include identifying information of the person for whom the parents or legal guardians are denying the driver's license. The document shall also contain identifying information of the person's parents or legal guardians. The document shall be certified by the parents or legal guardians to be true and correct. This provision shall not apply to any person who is legally emancipated. The parents or legal guardians may later file an additional document with the department of revenue which reinstates the person's ability to receive a driver's license.

            2. Any person whose license is reinstated under the provisions of subdivisions (9) and (10) of subsection 1 of this section shall be required to file proof with the director of revenue that any motor vehicle operated by the person is equipped with a functioning, certified ignition interlock device as a required condition of reinstatement. The ignition interlock device shall further be required to be maintained on all motor vehicles operated by the person for a period of not less than six months immediately following the date of reinstatement. If the person fails to maintain such proof with the director, the license shall be suspended for the remainder of the six-month period or until proof as required by this section is filed with the director. Upon the completion of the six-month period, the license shall be shown as reinstated, if the person is otherwise eligible.

            3. Any person who petitions the court for reinstatement of his or her license pursuant to subdivision (9) or (10) of subsection 1 of this section shall make application with the Missouri state highway patrol as provided in section 43.540, and shall submit two sets of fingerprints collected pursuant to standards as determined by the highway patrol. One set of fingerprints shall be used by the highway patrol to search the criminal history repository and the second set shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for searching the federal criminal history files. At the time of application, the applicant shall supply to the highway patrol the court name and case number for the court where he or she has filed his or her petition for reinstatement. The applicant shall pay the fee for the state criminal history check pursuant to section 43.530 and pay the appropriate fee determined by the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the federal criminal history record. The Missouri highway patrol, upon receipt of the results of the criminal history check, shall forward a copy of the results to the circuit court designated by the applicant and to the department. Notwithstanding the provisions of section 610.120, all records related to any criminal history check shall be accessible and available to the director and the court.

            302.181. 1. The license issued pursuant to the provisions of sections 302.010 to 302.340 shall be in such form as the director shall prescribe, but the license shall be a card made of plastic or other comparable material. All licenses shall be manufactured of materials and processes that will prohibit, as nearly as possible, the ability to reproduce, alter, counterfeit, forge, or duplicate any license without ready detection. All licenses shall bear the licensee's Social Security number, if the licensee has one, and if not, a notarized affidavit must be signed by the licensee stating that the licensee does not possess a Social Security number, or, if applicable, a certified statement must be submitted as provided in subsection 4 of this section. The license shall also bear the expiration date of the license, the classification of the license, the name, date of birth, residence address including the county of residence or a code number corresponding to such county established by the department, and brief description and colored photograph or digitized image of the licensee, and a facsimile of the signature of the licensee. The director shall provide by administrative rule the procedure and format for a licensee to indicate on the back of the license together with the designation for an anatomical gift as provided in section 194.240 the name and address of the person designated pursuant to sections 404.800 to 404.865 as the licensee's attorney in fact for the purposes of a durable power of attorney for health care decisions. No license shall be valid until it has been so signed by the licensee. If any portion of the license is prepared by a private firm, any contract with such firm shall be made in accordance with the competitive purchasing procedures as established by the state director of the division of purchasing. For all licenses issued or renewed after March 1, 1992, the applicant's Social Security number shall serve as the applicant's license number. Where the licensee has no Social Security number, or where the licensee is issued a license without a Social Security number in accordance with subsection 4 of this section, the director shall issue a license number for the licensee and such number shall also include an indicator showing that the number is not a Social Security number.

            2. All film involved in the production of photographs for licenses shall become the property of the department of revenue.

            3. The license issued shall be carried at all times by the holder thereof while driving a motor vehicle, and shall be displayed upon demand of any officer of the highway patrol, or any police officer or peace officer, or any other duly authorized person, for inspection when demand is made therefor. Failure of any operator of a motor vehicle to exhibit his or her license to any duly authorized officer shall be presumptive evidence that such person is not a duly licensed operator.

            4. The director of revenue shall issue a commercial or noncommercial driver's license without a Social Security number to an applicant therefor, who is otherwise qualified to be licensed, upon presentation to the director of a certified statement that the applicant objects to the display of the Social Security number on the license. The director shall assign an identification number, that is not based on a Social Security number, to the applicant which shall be displayed on the license in lieu of the Social Security number.

            5. The director of revenue shall not issue a license without a facial photograph or digital image of the license applicant, except as provided pursuant to subsection 8 of this section. A photograph or digital image of the applicant's full facial features shall be taken in a manner prescribed by the director. No photograph or digital image will be taken wearing anything which cloaks the facial features of the individual.

            6. The department of revenue may issue a temporary license or a full license without the photograph or with the last photograph or digital image in the department's records to members of the Armed Forces, except that where such temporary license is issued it shall be valid only until the applicant shall have had time to appear and have his or her picture taken and a license with his or her photograph issued.

            7. The department of revenue shall issue upon request a nondriver's license card containing essentially the same information and photograph or digital image, except as provided pursuant to subsection 8 of this section, as the driver's license upon payment of six dollars. All nondriver's licenses shall expire on the applicant's birthday in the sixth year after issuance. A person who has passed his or her seventieth birthday shall upon application be issued a nonexpiring nondriver's license card. Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, a nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement shall expire three years from the date the certificate of qualification was issued pursuant to section [571.101] 319.1025. The fee for nondriver's licenses issued for a period exceeding three years is six dollars or three dollars for nondriver's licenses issued for a period of three years or less. The nondriver's license card shall be used for identification purposes only and shall not be valid as a license.

            8. If otherwise eligible, an applicant may receive a driver's license or nondriver's license without a photograph or digital image of the applicant's full facial features except that such applicant's photograph or digital image shall be taken and maintained by the director and not printed on such license. In order to qualify for a license without a photograph or digital image pursuant to this section the applicant must:

            (1) Present a form provided by the department of revenue requesting the applicant's photograph be omitted from the license or nondriver's license due to religious affiliations. The form shall be signed by the applicant and another member of the religious tenant verifying the photograph or digital image exemption on the license or nondriver's license is required as part of their religious affiliation. The required signatures on the prescribed form shall be properly notarized;

            (2) Provide satisfactory proof to the director that the applicant has been a U.S. citizen for at least five years and a resident of this state for at least one year, except that an applicant moving to this state possessing a valid driver's license from another state without a photograph shall be exempt from the one-year state residency requirement. The director may establish rules necessary to determine satisfactory proof of citizenship and residency pursuant to this section;

            (3) Applications for a driver's license or nondriver's license without a photograph or digital image must be made in person at a license office determined by the director. The director is authorized to limit the number of offices that may issue a driver's or nondriver's license without a photograph or digital image pursuant to this section.

            9. The department of revenue shall make available, at one or more locations within the state, an opportunity for individuals to have their full facial photograph taken by an employee of the department of revenue, or their designee, who is of the same sex as the individual being photographed, in a segregated location.

            10. Beginning July 1, 2005, the director shall not issue a driver's license or a nondriver's license for a period that exceeds an applicant's lawful presence in the United States. The director may, by rule or regulation, establish procedures to verify the lawful presence of the applicant and establish the duration of any driver's license or nondriver's license issued under this section.

            11. No rule or portion of a rule promulgated pursuant to the authority of this chapter shall become effective unless it is promulgated pursuant to the provisions of chapter 536.

            302.304. 1. The director shall notify by ordinary mail any operator of the point value charged against the operator's record when the record shows four or more points have been accumulated in a twelve-month period.

            2. In an action to suspend or revoke a license or driving privilege under this section points shall be accumulated on the date of conviction. No case file of any conviction for a driving violation for which points may be assessed pursuant to section 302.302 may be closed until such time as a copy of the record of such conviction is forwarded to the department of revenue.

            3. The director shall suspend the license and driving privileges of any person whose driving record shows the driver has accumulated eight points in eighteen months.

            4. The license and driving privilege of any person whose license and driving privilege have been suspended under the provisions of sections 302.010 to 302.540 except those persons whose license and driving privilege have been suspended under the provisions of subdivision (8) of subsection 1 of section 302.302 or has accumulated sufficient points together with a conviction under subdivision (10) of subsection 1 of section 302.302 and who has filed proof of financial responsibility with the department of revenue, in accordance with chapter 303, and is otherwise eligible, shall be reinstated as follows:

            (1) In the case of an initial suspension, thirty days after the effective date of the suspension;

            (2) In the case of a second suspension, sixty days after the effective date of the suspension;

            (3) In the case of the third and subsequent suspensions, ninety days after the effective date of the suspension.

 

Unless proof of financial responsibility is filed with the department of revenue, a suspension shall continue in effect for two years from its effective date.

            5. The period of suspension of the driver's license and driving privilege of any person under the provisions of subdivision (8) of subsection 1 of section 302.302 or who has accumulated sufficient points together with a conviction under subdivision (10) of subsection 1 of section 302.302 shall be thirty days, followed by a sixty-day period of restricted driving privilege as defined in section 302.010. Upon completion of such period of restricted driving privilege, upon compliance with other requirements of law and upon filing of proof of financial responsibility with the department of revenue, in accordance with chapter 303, the license and driving privilege shall be reinstated. If a person, otherwise subject to the provisions of this subsection, files proof of installation with the department of revenue that any vehicle operated by such person is equipped with a functioning, certified ignition interlock device, then the period of suspension shall be fifteen days, followed by a seventy-five day period of restricted driving privilege. If the person fails to maintain such proof of the device with the director of revenue as required, the restricted driving privilege shall be terminated. Upon completion of such seventy-five day period of restricted driving privilege, upon compliance with other requirements of law, and upon filing of proof of financial responsibility with the department of revenue, in accordance with chapter 303, the license and driving privilege shall be reinstated. However, if the monthly monitoring reports during such seventy-five day period indicate that the ignition interlock device has registered a blood alcohol concentration level above the alcohol setpoint established by the department of transportation or such reports indicate that the ignition interlock device has been tampered with or circumvented, then the license and driving privilege of such person shall not be reinstated until the person completes an additional seventy-five day period of restricted driving privilege without any such violations.

            6. If the person fails to maintain proof of financial responsibility in accordance with chapter 303, or, if applicable, if the person fails to maintain proof that any vehicle operated is equipped with a functioning, certified ignition interlock device installed pursuant to subsection 5 of this section, the person's driving privilege and license shall be resuspended.

            7. The director shall revoke the license and driving privilege of any person when the person's driving record shows such person has accumulated twelve points in twelve months or eighteen points in twenty-four months or twenty-four points in thirty-six months. The revocation period of any person whose license and driving privilege have been revoked under the provisions of sections 302.010 to 302.540 and who has filed proof of financial responsibility with the department of revenue in accordance with chapter 303 and is otherwise eligible, shall be terminated by a notice from the director of revenue after one year from the effective date of the revocation. Unless proof of financial responsibility is filed with the department of revenue, except as provided in subsection 2 of section 302.541, the revocation shall remain in effect for a period of two years from its effective date. If the person fails to maintain proof of financial responsibility in accordance with chapter 303, the person's license and driving privilege shall be rerevoked. Any person whose license and driving privilege have been revoked under the provisions of sections 302.010 to 302.540 shall, upon receipt of the notice of termination of the revocation from the director, pass the complete driver examination and apply for a new license before again operating a motor vehicle upon the highways of this state.

            8. If, prior to conviction for an offense that would require suspension or revocation of a person's license under the provisions of this section, the person's total points accumulated are reduced, pursuant to the provisions of section 302.306, below the number of points required for suspension or revocation pursuant to the provisions of this section, then the person's license shall not be suspended or revoked until the necessary points are again obtained and accumulated.

            9. If any person shall neglect or refuse to surrender the person's license, as provided herein, the director shall direct the state highway patrol or any peace or police officer to secure possession thereof and return it to the director.

            10. Upon the issuance of a reinstatement or termination notice after a suspension or revocation of any person's license and driving privilege under the provisions of sections 302.010 to 302.540, the accumulated point value shall be reduced to four points, except that the points of any person serving as a member of the Armed Forces of the United States outside the limits of the United States during a period of suspension or revocation shall be reduced to zero upon the date of the reinstatement or termination of notice. It shall be the responsibility of such member of the Armed Forces to submit copies of official orders to the director of revenue to substantiate such overseas service. Any other provision of sections 302.010 to 302.540 to the contrary notwithstanding, the effective date of the four points remaining on the record upon reinstatement or termination shall be the date of the reinstatement or termination notice.

            11. No credit toward reduction of points shall be given during periods of suspension or revocation or any period of driving under a limited driving privilege granted by a court or the director of revenue.

            12. Any person or nonresident whose license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this state has been suspended or revoked under this or any other law shall, before having the license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle reinstated, pay to the director a reinstatement fee of twenty dollars which shall be in addition to all other fees provided by law.

            13. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, if after two years from the effective date of any suspension or revocation issued under this chapter, the person or nonresident has not paid the reinstatement fee of twenty dollars, the director shall reinstate such license or privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this state.

            14. No person who has had a license to operate a motor vehicle suspended or revoked as a result of an assessment of points for a violation under subdivision (8), (9) or (10) of subsection 1 of section 302.302 shall have that license reinstated until such person has participated in and successfully completed a substance abuse traffic offender program defined in section 302.010, or a program determined to be comparable by the department of mental health. Assignment recommendations, based upon the needs assessment as described in subdivision (22) of section 302.010, shall be delivered in writing to the person with written notice that the person is entitled to have such assignment recommendations reviewed by the court if the person objects to the recommendations. The person may file a motion in the associate division of the circuit court of the county in which such assignment was given, on a printed form provided by the state courts administrator, to have the court hear and determine such motion pursuant to the provisions of chapter 517. The motion shall name the person or entity making the needs assessment as the respondent and a copy of the motion shall be served upon the respondent in any manner allowed by law. Upon hearing the motion, the court may modify or waive any assignment recommendation that the court determines to be unwarranted based upon a review of the needs assessment, the person's driving record, the circumstances surrounding the offense, and the likelihood of the person committing a like offense in the future, except that the court may modify but may not waive the assignment to an education or rehabilitation program of a person determined to be a prior or persistent offender as defined in section [577.023] 577.001 or of a person determined to have operated a motor vehicle with fifteen-hundredths of one percent or more by weight in such person's blood. Compliance with the court determination of the motion shall satisfy the provisions of this section for the purpose of reinstating such person's license to operate a motor vehicle. The respondent's personal appearance at any hearing conducted pursuant to this subsection shall not be necessary unless directed by the court.

            15. The fees for the program authorized in subsection 14 of this section, or a portion thereof to be determined by the department of mental health, shall be paid by the person enrolled in the program. Any person who is enrolled in the program shall pay, in addition to any fee charged for the program, a supplemental fee in an amount to be determined by the department of mental health for the purposes of funding the substance abuse traffic offender program defined in section 302.010 [and section 577.001] or a program determined to be comparable by the department of mental health. The administrator of the program shall remit to the division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health on or before the fifteenth day of each month the supplemental fee for all persons enrolled in the program, less two percent for administrative costs. Interest shall be charged on any unpaid balance of the supplemental fees due the division of alcohol and drug abuse pursuant to this section and shall accrue at a rate not to exceed the annual rate established pursuant to the provisions of section 32.065, plus three percentage points. The supplemental fees and any interest received by the department of mental health pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the mental health earnings fund which is created in section 630.053.

            16. Any administrator who fails to remit to the division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health the supplemental fees and interest for all persons enrolled in the program pursuant to this section shall be subject to a penalty equal to the amount of interest accrued on the supplemental fees due the division pursuant to this section. If the supplemental fees, interest, and penalties are not remitted to the division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health within six months of the due date, the attorney general of the state of Missouri shall initiate appropriate action of the collection of said fees and interest accrued. The court shall assess attorney fees and court costs against any delinquent program.

            17. Any person who has had a license to operate a motor vehicle suspended or revoked as a result of an assessment of points for a violation under subdivision (9) of subsection 1 of section 302.302 shall be required to file proof with the director of revenue that any motor vehicle operated by the person is equipped with a functioning, certified ignition interlock device as a required condition of reinstatement of the license. The ignition interlock device shall further be required to be maintained on all motor vehicles operated by the person for a period of not less than six months immediately following the date of reinstatement. If the monthly monitoring reports show that the ignition interlock device has registered any confirmed blood alcohol concentration readings above the alcohol setpoint established by the department of transportation or that the person has tampered with or circumvented the ignition interlock device, then the period for which the person must maintain the ignition interlock device following the date of reinstatement shall be extended for an additional six months. If the person fails to maintain such proof with the director, the license shall be resuspended or revoked and the person shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor.

            302.321. 1. A person commits the [crime] offense of driving while revoked if such person operates a motor vehicle on a highway when such person's license or driving privilege has been cancelled, suspended, or revoked under the laws of this state or any other state and acts with criminal negligence with respect to knowledge of the fact that such person's driving privilege has been cancelled, suspended, or revoked.

            2. Any person convicted of driving while revoked is guilty of a misdemeanor. A first violation of this section shall be punishable [by a fine not to exceed three hundred dollars] as a class D misdemeanor. A second or third violation of this section shall be punishable [by imprisonment in the county jail for a term not to exceed one year and/or a fine not to exceed one thousand dollars] as a class A misdemeanor. Any person with no prior alcohol-related enforcement contacts as defined in section 302.525, convicted a fourth or subsequent time of driving while revoked or a county or municipal ordinance of driving while suspended or revoked where the defendant was represented by or waived the right to an attorney in writing, and where the prior three driving-while-revoked offenses occurred within ten years of the date of occurrence of the present offense; and any person with a prior alcohol-related enforcement contact as defined in section 302.525, convicted a third or subsequent time of driving while revoked or a county or municipal ordinance of driving while suspended or revoked where the defendant was represented by or waived the right to an attorney in writing, and where the prior two driving-while-revoked offenses occurred within ten years of the date of occurrence of the present offense and where the person received and served a sentence of ten days or more on such previous offenses is guilty of a class [D] E felony. Except upon conviction as a first offense, no court shall suspend the imposition of sentence as to such a person nor sentence such person to pay a fine in lieu of a term of imprisonment, nor shall such person be eligible for parole or probation until such person has served a minimum of forty-eight consecutive hours of imprisonment, unless as a condition of such parole or probation, such person performs at least ten days involving at least forty hours of community service under the supervision of the court in those jurisdictions which have a recognized program for community service. Driving while revoked is a class [D] E felony on the second or subsequent conviction pursuant to section 577.010 or a fourth or subsequent conviction for any other offense. Prior pleas of guilty and prior findings of guilty shall be pleaded and proven in the same manner as required by section 558.021.

            [577.500.] 302.400. 1. A court of competent jurisdiction shall, upon a [plea of guilty, conviction or] finding of guilt, or, if the court is a juvenile court, upon a finding of fact that the offense was committed by a juvenile, enter an order suspending or revoking the driving privileges of any person determined to have committed one of the following offenses and who, at the time said offense was committed, was under twenty-one years of age:

            (1) Any alcohol-related traffic offense in violation of state law or a county or[, beginning July 1, 1992,] municipal ordinance, where the defendant was represented by, or waived in writing the right to, an attorney [in writing];

            (2) Any offense in violation of state law or[, beginning July 1, 1992,] a county or municipal ordinance, where the defendant was represented by, or waived in writing the right to, an attorney [in writing], involving the possession or use of alcohol, committed while operating a motor vehicle;

            (3) Any offense involving the possession or use of a controlled substance as defined in chapter 195 in violation of [the] state law or[, beginning July 1, 1992,] a county or municipal ordinance, where the defendant was represented by, or waived in writing the right to, an attorney [in writing];

            (4) Any offense involving the alteration, modification, or misrepresentation of a license to operate a motor vehicle in violation of section 311.328;

            (5) Any subsequent offense in violation of state law or[, beginning July 1, 1992,] a county or municipal ordinance, where the defendant was represented by, or waived in writing the right to, an attorney [in writing], involving the possession or use of alcohol [for a second time]; except that a determination of guilt or its equivalent shall have been made for the first offense and both offenses shall have been committed by the person when the person was under eighteen years of age.

            2. A court of competent jurisdiction shall, upon a [plea of guilty or nolo contendere, conviction or] finding of guilt, or, if the court is a juvenile court, upon a finding of fact that the offense was committed by a juvenile, enter an order suspending or revoking the driving privileges of any person determined to have committed a [crime or] violation of section 311.325 and who, at the time said [crime or] violation was committed, was more than fifteen years of age and under twenty-one years of age.

            3. The court shall require the person against whom a court has entered an order suspending or revoking driving privileges under subsections 1 and 2 of this section to surrender [to it of] any license to operate a motor vehicle, temporary instruction permit, intermediate driver's license, or any other driving privilege then held by [any] such person [against whom a court has entered an order suspending or revoking driving privileges under subsections 1 and 2 of this section].

            4. The court, if other than a juvenile court, shall forward to the director of revenue the order of suspension or revocation of driving privileges and any licenses, temporary instruction permits, intermediate driver's licenses, or any other driving privilege acquired under subsection 3 of this section.

            5. (1) Notwithstanding chapter 211 to the contrary, the court, if a juvenile court, shall forward to the director of revenue the order of suspension or revocation of driving privileges and any licenses, temporary instruction permits, intermediate driver's licenses, or any other driving privilege acquired under subsection 3 of this section for any person sixteen years of age or older[, the provision of chapter 211 to the contrary notwithstanding].

            (2) Notwithstanding chapter 211 to the contrary, the court, if a juvenile court, shall hold the order of suspension or revocation of driving privileges for any person less than sixteen years of age until thirty days before the person's sixteenth birthday, at which time the juvenile court shall forward to the director of revenue the order of suspension or revocation of driving privileges[, the provision of chapter 211 to the contrary notwithstanding].

            6. The period of suspension for a first offense under subsection 1 of this section shall be ninety days. Any second or subsequent offense under subsection 1 of this section shall result in revocation of the offender's driving privileges for one year. The period of suspension for a first offense under subsection 2 of this section shall be thirty days. The period of suspension for a second offense under subsection 2 of this section shall be ninety days. Any third or subsequent offense under subsection 2 of this section shall result in revocation of the offender's driving privileges for one year.

            [577.505.] 302.405. A court of competent jurisdiction shall enter an order revoking the driving privileges of any person determined to have violated any state, county, or municipal law involving the possession or use of a controlled substance, as defined in chapter 195, while operating a motor vehicle and who, at the time said offense was committed, was twenty-one years of age or older [when the person pleads guilty, or is convicted or found guilty of such offense by the court]. The court shall require the person to surrender to [it of] the court all operator's and chauffeur's licenses then held by such person. The court shall forward to the director of revenue the order of revocation of driving privileges and any licenses surrendered.

            [577.510.] 302.410. 1. Upon receipt of a court order suspending or revoking the driving privileges of a person [pursuant to sections 577.500 and 577.505] under sections 302.400 and 302.405, the director of revenue shall suspend the driving privileges for ninety days or revoke the driving privileges of such person for a period of one year, provided however, that in the case of a person who at the time of the offense was less than sixteen years of age, the period of suspension or revocation shall commence on that person's sixteenth birthday. The provisions of this chapter [302] to the contrary notwithstanding, the suspension or revocation shall be imposed without further hearing. Any person whose driving privileges have been suspended or revoked [pursuant to sections 577.500 and 577.505] under sections 302.400 and 302.405 may petition the circuit court for a hardship driving privilege and said application shall be determined and administered in the same manner as allowed in section 302.309.

            2. The director of revenue shall permit the issuance of a temporary instruction permit in the same manner as allowed in subsection [2] 3 of section 302.130 to persons fifteen years of age and under seventeen years of age denied driving privileges by court order pursuant to section [577.500] 302.400. This exception only applies to instruction permits that entitle a person to operate a motor vehicle on the highways in the presence of an authorized instructor.

            [577.515.] 302.415. If a person shall neglect or refuse to surrender all operator's and chauffeur's licenses, as provided for in sections [577.500 and 577.505] 302.400 and 302.405, the director shall direct the state highway patrol or any peace or police officer to secure possession thereof and return such license or licenses to the director.

            [577.520.] 302.420. 1. No person who has had his license suspended or revoked under the provisions of sections [577.500 and 577.505] 302.400 and 302.405 shall have that license reinstated until he or she has paid a twenty-dollar reinstatement fee and has successfully completed a substance abuse traffic offender program as defined in section [577.001] 302.010.             2. The fees for the substance abuse traffic offender program, or a portion thereof to be determined by the division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health, shall be paid by the person enrolled in the program. Any person who is enrolled in the program shall pay, in addition to any fee charged for the program, a supplemental fee to be determined by the department of mental health for the purposes of funding the substance abuse traffic offender program defined in section 302.010 [and section 577.001], or a program determined to be comparable by the department of mental health. The administrator of the program shall remit to the division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health on or before the fifteenth of each month the supplemental fees for all persons enrolled in the program, less two percent for administrative costs. Interest shall be charged on any unpaid balance of the supplemental fees due the division of alcohol and drug abuse pursuant to this section and shall accrue at a rate not to exceed the annual rates established pursuant to the provisions of section 32.065 plus three percentage points. The supplemental fees and any interest received by the department of mental health pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the mental health earnings fund which is created in section 630.053.

            3. Any administrator who fails to remit to the division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health the supplemental fees and interest for all persons enrolled in the program pursuant to this section shall be subject to a penalty equal to the amount of interest accrued on the supplemental fees due the division pursuant to this section. If the supplemental fees, interest, and penalties are not remitted to the division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health within six months of the due date, the attorney general of the state of Missouri shall initiate appropriate action [of the collection of] to collect said fees and any accrued interest [accrued]. The court shall assess attorney fees and court costs against any delinquent program.

            [577.525.] 302.425. Any court which has jurisdiction over violations of state, county or municipal laws shall enter an order, in addition to other orders authorized by law, requiring the completion of a substance abuse traffic offender program as defined in section [577.001] 302.010, as a part of the judgment entered in the case, for any person determined to have violated a state, county, or municipal law involving the possession or use of alcohol and who at the time of said offense was under twenty-one years of age when the court, if a juvenile court, finds that the offense was committed by such person or, if a city, county, or state court, when the person pleads guilty, or is found guilty of such offense by the court.

            [577.530.] 302.426. The director of revenue shall have authority to make such rules and regulations as he deems necessary for the administration of sections [577.500 to 577.525. No rule or portion of a rule promulgated under the authority of sections 577.500 to 577.530 shall become effective unless it has been promulgated pursuant to the provisions of section 536.024] 302.400 to 302.425. Any rule or portion of a rule, as that term is defined in section 536.010, that is created under the authority delegated in this section shall become effective only if it complies with and is subject to all of the provisions of chapter 536 and, if applicable, section 536.028. This section and chapter 536 are nonseverable and if any of the powers vested with the general assembly pursuant to chapter 536 to review, to delay the effective date, or to disapprove and annul a rule are subsequently held unconstitutional, then the grant of rulemaking authority and any rule proposed or adopted after August 28, 2013, shall be invalid and void.

            302.440. In addition to any other provisions of law, a court may require that any person who is found guilty of a first intoxication-related traffic offense, as defined in section 577.001, and a court shall require that any person who is found guilty of or pleads guilty to a second or subsequent intoxication-related traffic offense, as defined in section 577.001, shall not operate any motor vehicle unless that vehicle is equipped with a functioning, certified ignition interlock device for a period of not less than six months from the date of reinstatement of the person's driver's license. In addition, any court authorized to grant a limited driving privilege under section 302.309 to any person who is found guilty of a second or subsequent intoxication-related traffic offense shall require the use of an ignition interlock device on all vehicles operated by the person as a required condition of the limited driving privilege. These requirements shall be in addition to any other provisions of this chapter or chapter 577 requiring installation and maintenance of an ignition interlock device. Any person required to use an ignition interlock device shall comply with such requirement subject to the penalties provided by section 577.599.

            [577.602.] 302.442. 1. If a court imposes a fine and requires the use of an ignition interlock device for the same offense, the amount of the fine may be reduced by the cost of the ignition interlock device.

            2. If the court requires the use of an ignition interlock device, it shall order the installation of the device on any vehicle which the offender operates during the period of probation or limited driving privilege.

            3. If the court imposes the use of an ignition interlock device on a person having full or limited driving privileges, the court shall require the person to provide proof of compliance with the order to the court or the probation officer within thirty days of this court's order or sooner, as required by the court, in addition to any proof required to be filed with the director of revenue under the provisions of this chapter or chapter [302] 577. If the person fails to provide proof of installation within that period, absent a finding by the court of good cause for that failure which is entered in the court record, the court shall revoke or terminate the person's probation or limited driving privilege.

            4. Nothing in sections [577.600 to 577.614] 302.440 to 302.462 shall be construed to authorize a person to operate a motor vehicle whose driving privileges have been suspended or revoked, unless the person has obtained a limited driving privilege or restricted driving privilege under other provisions of law.

            5. The person whose driving privilege is restricted pursuant to section [577.600] 302.440 shall report to the court or the probation officer at least once annually, or more frequently as the court may order, on the operation of each ignition interlock device in the person's vehicle or vehicles. Such person shall be responsible for the cost and maintenance of the ignition interlock device. If such device is broken, destroyed or stolen, such person shall also be liable for the cost of replacement of the device.

            6. The court may require a person whose driving privilege is restricted under section [577.600] 302.440 to report to any officer appointed by the court in lieu of a probation officer.

            7. The court shall require periodic calibration checks that are needed for the proper operation of the ignition interlock device.

            [577.604.] 302.454. The court shall require the use of a certified ignition interlock device during the period of probation if the person is permitted to operate a motor vehicle, whether the privilege to operate a motor vehicle is restricted or not, as determined by the court.

            [577.606.] 302.456. The court shall send the order to the department of revenue in all cases where the driving privilege of a person is restricted pursuant to section [577.600] 302.440. The order shall contain the requirement for, and the period of, the use of a certified ignition interlock device under sections [577.600 to 577.614] 302.440 to 302.462. The records of the department of revenue shall contain a record reflecting mandatory use of the device.

            [577.608.] 302.458. 1. The department of public safety shall certify or cause to be certified ignition interlock devices required by sections [577.600 to 577.614] 302.440 to 302.462 and publish a list of approved devices.

            2. The department of public safety shall adopt guidelines for the proper use of the ignition interlock devices in full compliance with sections [577.600 to 577.614] sections 302.440 to 302.462.

            3. The department of public safety shall use information from an independent agency to certify ignition interlock devices on or off the premises of the manufacturer in accordance with the guidelines. The cost of certification shall be borne by the manufacturers of interlock ignition devices. In certifying the devices, those which do not impede the safe operation of the vehicle and which have the fewest opportunities to be bypassed so as to render the provisions of sections [577.600 to 577.614] 302.440 to 302.462 ineffective shall be certified.

            4. No model of ignition interlock device shall be certified unless it meets the accuracy requirements specified by the guidelines of the department of public safety.

            5. Before certifying any device, the department of public safety shall consult with the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration regarding the use of ignition interlock devices.

            [577.610.] 302.460. The manufacturer shall affix to each ignition interlock device a label which shall contain a warning that any person tampering, circumventing or otherwise misusing the device is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.

            [577.614.] 302.462. 1. In addition to any other provisions of law, upon a finding of [guilty of, or a plea of guilty to,] guilt to a violation of [subsection 1 of section 577.600] section 577.599, the department of revenue shall revoke the person's driving privilege for one year from the date of conviction.

            2. In addition to any other provision of law, if a person is found guilty of, or pleads guilty to, a second violation of [subsection 1 of section 577.600] section 577.599 during the same period of required use of an approved ignition interlock device, the department of revenue shall revoke the person's driving privilege for five years from the date of conviction.

            3. The court shall notify the department of revenue of all guilty findings and pleas [pursuant to subsection 1 of section 577.600] under section 577.599.

            4. The department of revenue shall charge a reinstatement fee as required by section 302.304 prior to the reinstatement of any driving privilege suspended or revoked pursuant to this section.

            5. No restricted or limited driving privilege shall be issued for any person whose license is revoked pursuant to this section.

            302.500. As used in sections 302.500 to 302.540, the following terms mean:

            (1) "Alcohol concentration", the amount of alcohol in a person's blood at the time of the act alleged as shown by chemical analysis of the person's blood, breath, saliva or urine;

            (2) "Department", the department of revenue of the state of Missouri;

            (3) "Director", the director of the department of revenue or his or her authorized representative;

            (4) "Driver's license" or "license", a license, permit, or privilege to drive a motor vehicle issued under or granted by the laws of this state. The term includes any temporary license or instruction permit, any nonresident operating privilege, and the privilege of any person to drive a motor vehicle whether or not the person holds a valid license;

            (5) "Revocation", the termination by formal action of the department of a person's license. A revoked license is not subject to renewal or restoration except that an application for a new license may be presented and acted upon by the department after the expiration of the revocation period;

            (6) "State", a state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, and any province of Canada;

            (7) "Suspension", the temporary withdrawal by formal action of the department of a person's license. The suspension shall be for a period specifically designated by the department pursuant to the provisions of sections 302.500 to 302.540.

            302.540. 1. No person who has had a license to operate a motor vehicle suspended or revoked under the provisions of sections 302.500 to 302.540 shall have that license reinstated until such person has participated in and successfully completed a substance abuse traffic offender program defined in section 302.010, or a program determined to be comparable by the department of mental health. Assignment recommendations, based upon the needs assessment as described in subdivision (22) of section 302.010, shall be delivered in writing to the person with written notice that the person is entitled to have such assignment recommendations reviewed by the court if the person objects to the recommendations. The person may file a motion in the associate division of the circuit court of the county in which such assignment was given, on a printed form provided by the state courts administrator, to have the court hear and determine such motion pursuant to the provisions of chapter 517. The motion shall name the person or entity making the needs assessment as the respondent and a copy of the motion shall be served upon the respondent in any manner allowed by law. Upon hearing the motion, the court may modify or waive any assignment recommendation that the court determines to be unwarranted based upon a review of the needs assessment, the person's driving record, the circumstances surrounding the offense, and the likelihood of the person committing a like offense in the future, except that the court may modify but may not waive the assignment to an education or rehabilitation program of a person determined to be a prior or persistent offender as defined in section [577.023] 577.001 or of a person determined to have operated a motor vehicle with fifteen-hundredths of one percent or more by weight in such person's blood. Compliance with the court determination of the motion shall satisfy the provisions of this section for the purpose of reinstating such person's license to operate a motor vehicle. The respondent's personal appearance at any hearing conducted pursuant to this subsection shall not be necessary unless directed by the court.

            2. The fees for the program authorized in subsection 1 of this section, or a portion thereof to be determined by the division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health, shall be paid by the person enrolled in the program. Any person who is enrolled in the program shall pay, in addition to any fee charged for the program, a supplemental fee to be determined by the department of mental health for the purposes of funding the substance abuse traffic offender program defined in section 302.010 [and section 577.001] or a program determined to be comparable by the department of mental health. The administrator of the program shall remit to the division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health on or before the fifteenth day of each month the supplemental fee for all persons enrolled in the program, less two percent for administrative costs. Interest shall be charged on any unpaid balance of the supplemental fees due the division of alcohol and drug abuse pursuant to this section and shall accrue at a rate not to exceed the annual rate established pursuant to the provision of section 32.065 plus three percentage points. The supplemental fees and any interest received by the department of mental health pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the mental health earnings fund which is created in section 630.053.

            3. Any administrator who fails to remit to the division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health the supplemental fees and interest for all persons enrolled in the program pursuant to this section shall be subject to a penalty equal to the amount of interest accrued on the supplemental fees due the division pursuant to this section. If the supplemental fees, interest, and penalties are not remitted to the division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health within six months of the due date, the attorney general of the state of Missouri shall initiate appropriate action of the collection of said fees and interest accrued. The court shall assess attorney fees and court costs against any delinquent program.

            4. Court-ordered participation in a substance abuse traffic offender program, pursuant to section [577.049] 302.580, shall satisfy the requirements of this section if the court action arose out of the same occurrence that resulted in a person's license being administratively suspended or revoked.

            5. The division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health may create a treatment demonstration project within existing appropriations and shall develop and certify a program to provide education or rehabilitation services for individuals determined by the division to be serious or repeat offenders. The program shall qualify as a substance abuse traffic offender program. As used in this subsection, a "serious or repeat offender" is one who was determined to have a blood alcohol content of fifteen-hundredths of one percent or more by weight while operating a motor vehicle or a prior or persistent offender as defined in section [577.023] 577.001.

            302.541. 1. In addition to other fees required by law, any person who has had a license to operate a motor vehicle suspended or revoked following a determination, pursuant to section 302.505, or section 302.410, 302.574, 577.010, or 577.012, [577.041 or 577.510,] or any county or municipal ordinance, where the defendant was represented by or waived the right to an attorney, that such person was driving while intoxicated or with a blood alcohol content of eight-hundredths of one percent or more by weight or, where such person was at the time of the arrest less than twenty-one years of age and was driving with a blood alcohol content of two-hundredths of one percent or more by weight, shall pay an additional fee of twenty-five dollars prior to the reinstatement or reissuance of the license.

            2. Any person less than twenty-one years of age whose driving privilege has been suspended or revoked solely for a first determination pursuant to sections 302.500 to 302.540 that such person was driving a motor vehicle with two-hundredths of one percent or more blood alcohol content is exempt from filing proof of financial responsibility with the department of revenue in accordance with chapter 303 as a prerequisite for reinstatement of driving privileges or obtaining a restricted driving privilege as provided by section 302.525.

            302.574. 1. If a person who was operating a vehicle refuses upon the request of the officer to submit to any chemical test under section 577.041, the officer shall, on behalf of the director of revenue, serve the notice of license revocation personally upon the person and shall take possession of any license to operate a vehicle issued by this state which is held by that person. The officer shall issue a temporary permit, on behalf of the director of revenue, which is valid for fifteen days and shall also give the person notice of his or her right to file a petition for review to contest the license revocation.

            2. Such officer shall make a certified report under penalties of perjury for making a false statement to a public official. The report shall be forwarded to the director of revenue and shall include the following:

            (1) That the officer has:

            (a) Reasonable grounds to believe that the arrested person was driving a motor vehicle while in an intoxicated condition; or

            (b) Reasonable grounds to believe that the person stopped, being under the age of twenty-one years, was driving a motor vehicle with a blood alcohol content of two-hundredths of one percent or more by weight; or

            (c) Reasonable grounds to believe that the person stopped, being under the age of twenty-one years, was committing a violation of the traffic laws of the state, or political subdivision of the state, and such officer has reasonable grounds to believe, after making such stop, that the person had a blood alcohol content of two-hundredths of one percent or greater;

            (2) That the person refused to submit to a chemical test;

            (3) Whether the officer secured the license to operate a motor vehicle of the person;

            (4) Whether the officer issued a fifteen-day temporary permit;

            (5) Copies of the notice of revocation, the fifteen-day temporary permit, and the notice of the right to file a petition for review. The notices and permit may be combined in one document; and

            (6) Any license, which the officer has taken into possession, to operate a motor vehicle.

            3. Upon receipt of the officer's report, the director shall revoke the license of the person refusing to take the test for a period of one year; or if the person is a nonresident, such person's operating permit or privilege shall be revoked for one year; or if the person is a resident without a license or permit to operate a motor vehicle in this state, an order shall be issued denying the person the issuance of a license or permit for a period of one year.

            4. If a person's license has been revoked because of the person's refusal to submit to a chemical test, such person may petition for a hearing before a circuit division or associate division of the court in the county in which the arrest or stop occurred. The person may request such court to issue an order staying the revocation until such time as the petition for review can be heard. If the court, in its discretion, grants such stay, it shall enter the order upon a form prescribed by the director of revenue and shall send a copy of such order to the director. Such order shall serve as proof of the privilege to operate a motor vehicle in this state and the director shall maintain possession of the person's license to operate a motor vehicle until termination of any revocation under this section. Upon the person's request, the clerk of the court shall notify the prosecuting attorney of the county and the prosecutor shall appear at the hearing on behalf of the director of revenue. At the hearing, the court shall determine only:

            (1) Whether the person was arrested or stopped;

            (2) Whether the officer had:

            (a) Reasonable grounds to believe that the person was driving a motor vehicle while in an intoxicated or drugged condition; or

            (b) Reasonable grounds to believe that the person stopped, being under the age of twenty-one years, was driving a motor vehicle with a blood alcohol content of two-hundredths of one percent or more by weight; or

            (c) Reasonable grounds to believe that the person stopped, being under the age of twenty-one years, was committing a violation of the traffic laws of the state, or political subdivision of the state, and such officer had reasonable grounds to believe, after making such stop, that the person had a blood alcohol content of two-hundredths of one percent or greater; and

            (3) Whether the person refused to submit to the test.

            5. If the court determines any issue not to be in the affirmative, the court shall order the director to reinstate the license or permit to drive.

            6. Requests for review as provided in this section shall go to the head of the docket of the court wherein filed.

            7. No person who has had a license to operate a motor vehicle suspended or revoked under the provisions of this section shall have that license reinstated until such person has participated in and successfully completed a substance abuse traffic offender program defined in section 302.010, or a program determined to be comparable by the department of mental health. Assignment recommendations, based upon the needs assessment as described in subdivision (23) of section 302.010, shall be delivered in writing to the person with written notice that the person is entitled to have such assignment recommendations reviewed by the court if the person objects to the recommendations. The person may file a motion in the associate division of the circuit court of the county in which such assignment was given, on a printed form provided by the state courts administrator, to have the court hear and determine such motion under the provisions of chapter 517. The motion shall name the person or entity making the needs assessment as the respondent and a copy of the motion shall be served upon the respondent in any manner allowed by law. Upon hearing the motion, the court may modify or waive any assignment recommendation that the court determines to be unwarranted based upon a review of the needs assessment, the person's driving record, the circumstances surrounding the offense, and the likelihood of the person committing a similar offense in the future, except that the court may modify but may not waive the assignment of a person determined to be a prior or persistent offender as defined in section 577.001, or of a person determined to have operated a motor vehicle with a blood alcohol content of fifteen-hundredths of one percent or more by weight. Compliance with the court determination of the motion shall satisfy the provisions of this section for the purpose of reinstating such person's license to operate a motor vehicle. The respondent's personal appearance at any hearing conducted under this subsection shall not be necessary unless directed by the court.

            8. The fees for the substance abuse traffic offender program, or a portion thereof, to be determined by the division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health, shall be paid by the person enrolled in the program. Any person who is enrolled in the program shall pay, in addition to any fee charged for the program, a supplemental fee to be determined by the department of mental health for the purposes of funding the substance abuse traffic offender program defined in section 302.010. The administrator of the program shall remit to the division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health on or before the fifteenth day of each month the supplemental fee for all persons enrolled in the program, less two percent for administrative costs. Interest shall be charged on any unpaid balance of the supplemental fees due to the division of alcohol and drug abuse under this section, and shall accrue at a rate not to exceed the annual rates established under the provisions of section 32.065, plus three percentage points. The supplemental fees and any interest received by the department of mental health under this section shall be deposited in the mental health earnings fund, which is created in section 630.053.

            9. Any administrator who fails to remit to the division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health the supplemental fees and interest for all persons enrolled in the program under this section shall be subject to a penalty equal to the amount of interest accrued on the supplemental fees due to the division under this section. If the supplemental fees, interest, and penalties are not remitted to the division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health within six months of the due date, the attorney general of the state of Missouri shall initiate appropriate action for the collection of said fees and accrued interest. The court shall assess attorneys' fees and court costs against any delinquent program.

            10. Any person who has had a license to operate a motor vehicle revoked more than once for violation of the provisions of this section shall be required to file proof with the director of revenue that any motor vehicle operated by the person is equipped with a functioning, certified ignition interlock device as a required condition of license reinstatement. Such ignition interlock device shall further be required to be maintained on all motor vehicles operated by the person for a period of not less than six months immediately following the date of reinstatement. If the person fails to maintain such proof with the director as required by this section, the license shall be rerevoked.

            11. The revocation period of any person whose license and driving privilege has been revoked under this section and who has filed proof of financial responsibility with the department of revenue in accordance with chapter 303 and is otherwise eligible, shall be terminated by a notice from the director of revenue after one year from the effective date of the revocation. Unless proof of financial responsibility is filed with the department of revenue, the revocation shall remain in effect for a period of two years from its effective date. If the person fails to maintain proof of financial responsibility in accordance with chapter 303, the person's license and driving privilege shall be rerevoked.

            12. A person commits the offense of failure to maintain proof with the Missouri department of revenue if, when required to do so, he or she fails to file proof with the director of revenue that any vehicle operated by the person is equipped with a functioning, certified ignition interlock device or fails to file proof of financial responsibility with the department of revenue in accordance with chapter 303. The offense of failure to maintain of proof with the Missouri department of revenue is a class A misdemeanor.

            [577.049.] 302.580. 1. Upon a plea of guilty or a finding of guilty for an offense of violating the provisions of section 577.010 or 577.012 or violations of county or municipal ordinances involving alcohol- or drug-related traffic offenses, the court shall order the person to participate in and successfully complete a substance abuse traffic offender program defined in section 577.001.

            2. The fees for the substance abuse traffic offender program, or a portion thereof, to be determined by the division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health, shall be paid by the person enrolling in the program. Any person who is enrolled in the program shall pay, in addition to any fee charged for the program, a supplemental fee to be determined by the department of mental health for the purposes of funding the substance abuse traffic offender program defined in section 302.010 [and section 577.001]. The administrator of the program shall remit to the division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health on or before the fifteenth day of each month the supplemental fees for all persons enrolled in the program, less two percent for administrative costs. Interest shall be charged on any unpaid balance of the supplemental fees due to the division of alcohol and drug abuse pursuant to this section and shall accrue at a rate not to exceed the annual rates established pursuant to the provisions of section 32.065, plus three percentage points. The supplemental fees and any interest received by the department of mental health pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the mental health earnings fund, which is created in section 630.053.

            3. Any administrator who fails to remit to the division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health the supplemental fees and interest for all persons enrolled in the program pursuant to this section shall be subject to a penalty equal to the amount of interest accrued on the supplemental fees due to the division pursuant to this section. If the supplemental fees, interest, and penalties are not remitted to the division of alcohol and drug abuse of the department of mental health within six months of the due date, the attorney general of the state of Missouri shall initiate appropriate action of the collection of said fees and accrued interest [accrued]. The court shall assess attorney fees and court costs against any delinquent program.

            [577.052.] 302.584. Any rule or portion of a rule promulgated pursuant to this act shall become effective only as provided pursuant to chapter 536 including, but not limited to, section 536.028, if applicable, after August 28, 1997. All rulemaking authority delegated prior to August 28, 1997, is of no force and effect and repealed. The provisions of this section are nonseverable and if any of the powers vested with the general assembly pursuant to section 536.028, if applicable, to review, to delay the effective date, or to disapprove and annul a rule or portion of a rule are held unconstitutional or invalid, the purported grant of rulemaking authority and any rule so proposed and contained in the order of rulemaking shall be invalid and void.

            [577.051.] 302.592. 1. A record of the disposition in any court proceeding involving [a violation of any of the provisions of sections 577.005 to 577.023, or violation of county or municipal ordinances involving alcohol- or drug-related driving offenses] any criminal offense, infraction, or ordinance violation related to the operation of a vehicle while intoxicated or with an excessive blood alcohol content shall be forwarded to the department of revenue, within seven days by the clerk of the court in which the proceeding was held. The records shall be forwarded by the department of revenue, within fifteen days of receipt, to the Missouri state highway patrol and shall be entered by the highway patrol in the Missouri uniform law enforcement system records. Dispositions that shall be reported are guilty pleas [of guilty], findings of [guilty] guilt, suspended imposition of sentence, suspended execution of sentence, probation, conditional sentences, sentences of confinement, and any other such dispositions that may be required under state or federal regulations. The record forwarded by the clerk shall clearly [show] state the name of the court, the court case number, the name, address, and motor vehicle operator's or chauffeur's license number of the person who is the subject of the proceeding, the code or number identifying the particular arrest, and any court action or requirements pertaining thereto.

            2. All records received by the Missouri state highway patrol or the department of revenue under the provisions of this section shall be entered in the Missouri uniform law enforcement system records and maintained by the Missouri state highway patrol. Records placed in the Missouri uniform law enforcement system under the provisions of this section shall be made available to any law enforcement officer in this state, any prosecuting or circuit attorney in this state, or to any judge of a municipal or state court upon request.

            3. [Any] A person commits the offense of refusal to furnish records of disposition if he or she is required [by this section] to furnish records to the Missouri state highway patrol or department of revenue [who willfully] under this section and purposely refuses to furnish such records [is guilty of] . The offense of refusal to furnish records of disposition is a class [C] D misdemeanor.

            [4. Records required to be filed with the Missouri state highway patrol or the department of revenue under the provisions of sections 302.225 and 577.001 to 577.051 shall be filed beginning July 1, 1983, and no penalties for nonfiling of records shall be applied prior to July 1, 1983.

            5. Forms and procedures for filing of records with the Missouri state highway patrol or department of revenue as required in this chapter shall be promulgated by the director of the department of public safety or department of revenue, as applicable, and approved by the Missouri supreme court.

            6. All record-keeping procedures required under the provisions of sections 577.005 to 577.023 shall be in accordance with this section, chapter 610 to the contrary notwithstanding.]

            302.605. 1. As used in the compact contained in section 302.600, the term "executive head" shall mean the governor of this state.

            2. As used in the compact contained in section 302.600, the term "licensing authority" shall mean the department of revenue of this state. The director of revenue shall furnish to the appropriate authorities of any other party state any information or documents reasonably necessary to facilitate the administration of Articles III, IV and V of the compact contained in section 302.600.

            3. The director of the department of revenue, as compact administrator provided for in Article VII of the compact contained in section 302.600, shall not be entitled to any additional compensation on account of his or her service as such administrator. However, he or she shall be entitled to expenses incurred in connection with his or her duties and responsibilities as such administrator, in the same manner as for expenses incurred in connection with any other duties or responsibilities of his office or employment.

            4. Any court or other agency of this state, or any subdivision thereof, which has jurisdiction to take any action suspending, revoking or otherwise limiting a license to drive or operate a motor vehicle, shall report any such action and the adjudication upon which it is based to the director of the department of revenue in the manner and within the time prescribed by the director of the department by rule.

            5. Article IV of the compact contained in section 302.600 shall apply to those offenses for which a license to drive or operate a motor vehicle may be suspended or revoked under the laws of this state, and any suspension or revocation therefor shall be governed by the provisions of law applicable to such suspension or revocation.

            302.705. 1. No person who drives a commercial motor vehicle shall have more than one driver's license.

            2. No person is eligible for a commercial driver's license who is under eighteen years of age, except any person transporting a hazardous material must be at least twenty-one years of age.

            3. Any driver of a commercial motor vehicle holding a commercial driver's license issued by this state, and who is convicted of violating any state law or county or municipal ordinance regulating the operation of motor vehicles in any other state, other than parking violations, shall notify the director in writing on a form prescribed by the director within thirty days of the date of conviction. Upon notification of such conviction the director may apply the conviction information to the driver's record. If such conviction would result in disqualification of the license under sections 302.700 to 302.780, the director shall disqualify the license in accordance with sections 302.700 to 302.780.

            4. Any driver of a commercial motor vehicle holding a commercial driver's license issued by this state, and who is convicted of violating any state law or county or municipal ordinance regulating the operation of motor vehicles in this or any other state, other than parking violations, shall notify his or her employer in writing of the conviction within thirty days of the date of conviction.

            302.710. A driver whose commercial driver's license is suspended, revoked, or canceled by any state, or who loses the privilege to drive a commercial motor vehicle in any state for any period, including being disqualified from driving a commercial motor vehicle, or who is subject to an out of service order, shall notify his or her employer of that fact before the end of the business day following the day the driver received notice of that fact.

            302.727. 1. A person commits the [crime] offense of driving a commercial motor vehicle while revoked if such person operates a commercial motor vehicle when, as a result of prior violations committed operating a commercial motor vehicle, the driver's commercial driver license is revoked, suspended, or canceled, or the driver is disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle.

            2. Any person convicted of driving a commercial motor vehicle while revoked is guilty of a class A misdemeanor. Any person with no prior alcohol-related enforcement contacts as defined in section 302.525, convicted a fourth or subsequent time of driving a commercial motor vehicle while revoked or a county or municipal ordinance of driving a commercial motor vehicle while suspended or revoked where the judge in such case was an attorney and the defendant was represented by or waived the right to an attorney in writing, and where the prior three driving a commercial motor vehicle while revoked offenses occurred within ten years of the date of occurrence of the present offense and where the person received and served a sentence of ten days or more on such previous offenses; and any person with a prior alcohol-related enforcement contact as defined in section 302.525, convicted a third or subsequent time of driving a commercial motor vehicle while revoked or a county or municipal ordinance of driving a commercial motor vehicle while suspended or revoked where the judge in such case was an attorney and the defendant was represented by or waived the right to an attorney in writing, and where the prior two driving a commercial motor vehicle while revoked offenses occurred within ten years of the date of occurrence of the present offense and where the person received and served a sentence of ten days or more on such previous offenses is guilty of a class [D] E felony. No court shall suspend the imposition of sentence as to such a person nor sentence such person to pay a fine in lieu of a term of imprisonment, nor shall such person be eligible for parole or probation until he or she has served a minimum of forty-eight consecutive hours of imprisonment, unless as a condition of such parole or probation, such person performs at least ten days involving at least forty hours of community service under the supervision of the court in those jurisdictions which have a recognized program for community service. Driving a commercial motor vehicle while revoked is a class [D] E felony on the second or subsequent conviction pursuant to section 577.010 or a fourth or subsequent conviction for any other offense.

            302.745. 1. All chemical tests required herein for the enforcement of sections 302.700 to 302.780 shall be conducted using the same procedures, methods, waivers of liability, persons and facilities as those described in chapter 577 except as provided in sections 302.700 to 302.780. Nothing contained in chapter 577 shall be construed to require a person to be placed under arrest prior to his or her being requested to submit to a chemical test under this section.             2. A person who drives a commercial motor vehicle within this state is deemed to have given consent, subject to the provisions of this section, to a chemical test or tests of his or her breath, blood, saliva or urine for the purpose of determining his alcohol concentration, or the presence of controlled substances in his or her system.

            3. A test or tests may be administered for the purposes of enforcing sections 302.700 to 302.780, at the direction of a law enforcement officer, who has reason to believe that the driver was driving a commercial motor vehicle while having any amount of alcohol or controlled substances in his or her system.

            4. The implied consent to submit to the chemical tests listed in subsection 2 of this section shall be limited to not more than two such tests arising from the same arrest, stop, incident, or charge.

            5. Upon the request of a person who is tested, full information concerning the test shall be made available to him or her.

            6. Upon the trial of any person for violation of this section or upon the trial of any criminal action or violations of county or municipal ordinances arising out of acts alleged to have been committed by any person while driving a commercial motor vehicle under the influence of alcohol or controlled substances, the amount of alcohol or controlled substance in the person's blood at the time of the act alleged as shown by chemical analysis of the person's blood, breath, saliva or urine is admissible in evidence and the provisions of subdivision (5) of section 491.060 shall not prevent the admissibility or introduction of such evidence, if otherwise admissible. Nothing contained in this section shall be construed as limiting the introduction of any other competent evidence bearing upon the question whether the person was operating a commercial motor vehicle while under the influence of alcohol or controlled substances.

            302.750. 1. If a person refuses, upon the request of a law enforcement officer pursuant to section 302.745, to submit to any test allowed under that section, evidence of the refusal shall be admissible in any proceeding to determine whether a person was operating a commercial motor vehicle while under the influence of alcohol or controlled substances. In this event, the officer shall make a sworn report to the director that he or she requested a test pursuant to section 302.745 and that the person refused to submit to such testing.

            2. A person requested to submit to a test as provided by section 302.745 shall be warned by the law enforcement officer requesting the test that a refusal to submit to the test will result in that person being immediately placed out of service for a period of twenty-four hours and being disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle for a period of not less than one year if for a first refusal to submit to the test and for life if for a second or subsequent refusal to submit to the test. The director may issue rules and regulations, in accordance with guidelines established by the secretary, under which a disqualification for life under this section may be reduced to a period of not less than ten years.

            3. Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement officer submitted under subsection 1 of this section, the director shall disqualify the driver from operating a commercial motor vehicle.

            4. If a person has been disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle because of his refusal to submit to a chemical test, he or she may request a hearing before a court of record in the county in which the request was made. Upon his or her request, the clerk of the court shall notify the prosecuting attorney of the county and the prosecutor shall appear at the hearing on behalf of the officer. At the hearing the judge shall determine only:

            (1) Whether or not the law enforcement officer had reasonable grounds to believe that the person was driving a commercial motor vehicle with any amount of alcohol in his or her system;

            (2) Whether or not the person refused to submit to the test.

            5. If the judge determines any issues not to be in the affirmative, he or she shall order the director to reinstate the privilege to operate a commercial motor vehicle.

            6. Requests for review as herein provided shall go to the head of the docket of the court wherein filed.

            302.755. 1. A person is disqualified from driving a commercial motor vehicle for a period of not less than one year if convicted of a first violation of:

            (1) Driving a motor vehicle under the influence of alcohol or a controlled substance, or of an alcohol-related enforcement contact as defined in subsection 3 of section 302.525;

            (2) Driving a commercial motor vehicle which causes a fatality through the negligent operation of the commercial motor vehicle, including but not limited to the [crimes] offenses of vehicular manslaughter, homicide by motor vehicle, and negligent homicide;

            (3) Driving a commercial motor vehicle while revoked pursuant to section 302.727;

            (4) Leaving the scene of an accident involving a commercial or noncommercial motor vehicle operated by the person;

            (5) Using a commercial or noncommercial motor vehicle in the commission of any felony, as defined in section 302.700, except a felony as provided in subsection 4 of this section.             2. If any of the violations described in subsection 1 of this section occur while transporting a hazardous material the person is disqualified for a period of not less than three years.

            3. Any person is disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle for life if convicted of two or more violations of any of the offenses specified in subsection 1 of this section, or any combination of those offenses, arising from two or more separate incidents. The director may issue rules and regulations, in accordance with guidelines established by the secretary, under which a disqualification for life under this section may be reduced to a period of not less than ten years.

            4. Any person is disqualified from driving a commercial motor vehicle for life who uses a commercial or noncommercial motor vehicle in the commission of any felony involving the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of a controlled substance, or possession with intent to manufacture, distribute, or dispense a controlled substance.

            5. Any person is disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle for a period of not less than sixty days if convicted of two serious traffic violations or one hundred twenty days if convicted of three serious traffic violations, arising from separate incidents occurring within a three-year period.

            6. Any person found to be operating a commercial motor vehicle while having any measurable alcohol concentration shall immediately be issued a continuous twenty-four-hour out-of-service order by a law enforcement officer in this state.

            7. Any person who is convicted of operating a commercial motor vehicle beginning at the time of issuance of the out-of-service order until its expiration is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.

            8. Any person convicted for the first time of driving while out of service shall be disqualified from driving a commercial motor vehicle in the manner prescribed in 49 CFR Part 383, or as amended by the Secretary.

            9. Any person convicted of driving while out of service on a second occasion during any ten-year period, involving separate incidents, shall be disqualified in the manner prescribed in 49 CFR Part 383, or as amended by the Secretary.

            10. Any person convicted of driving while out of service on a third or subsequent occasion during any ten-year period, involving separate incidents, shall be disqualified for a period of three years.

            11. Any person convicted of a first violation of an out-of-service order while transporting hazardous materials or while operating a motor vehicle designed to transport sixteen or more passengers, including the driver, is disqualified for a period of one hundred eighty days.

            12. Any person convicted of any subsequent violation of an out-of-service order in a separate incident within ten years after a previous violation, while transporting hazardous materials or while operating a motor vehicle designed to transport fifteen passengers, including the driver, is disqualified for a period of three years.

            13. Any person convicted of any other offense as specified by regulations promulgated by the Secretary of Transportation shall be disqualified in accordance with such regulations.

            14. After suspending, revoking, canceling or disqualifying a driver, the director shall update records to reflect such action and notify a nonresident's licensing authority and the commercial driver's license information system within ten days in the manner prescribed in 49 CFR Part 384, or as amended by the Secretary.

            15. Any person disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle pursuant to subsection 1, 2, 3, or 4 of this section shall have such commercial driver's license canceled, and upon conclusion of the period of disqualification shall take the written and driving tests and meet all other requirements of sections 302.700 to 302.780. Such disqualification and cancellation shall not be withdrawn by the director until such person reapplies for a commercial driver's license in this or any other state after meeting all requirements of sections 302.700 to 302.780.             16. The director shall disqualify a driver upon receipt of notification that the Secretary has determined a driver to be an imminent hazard pursuant to 49 CFR, Part 383.52. Due process of a disqualification determined by the Secretary pursuant to this section shall be held in accordance with regulations promulgated by the Secretary. The period of disqualification determined by the Secretary pursuant to this section shall be served concurrently to any other period of disqualification which may be imposed by the director pursuant to this section. Both disqualifications shall appear on the driving record of the driver.

            17. The director shall disqualify a commercial license holder or operator of a commercial vehicle from operation of any commercial motor vehicle upon receipt of a conviction for an offense of failure to appear or pay, and such disqualification shall remain in effect until the director receives notice that the person has complied with the requirement to appear or pay.

            302.780. 1. It shall be unlawful for a person to:

            (1) Drive a commercial motor vehicle in a willful or wanton disregard for the safety of persons or property; or

            (2) [Drive a commercial motor vehicle while having an alcohol concentration of four one-hundredths of a percent or more as prescribed by the secretary or such other alcohol concentration as may be later determined by the secretary by regulation; or

            (3)] Drive a commercial motor vehicle while under the influence of any substance so classified under section 102(6) of the Controlled Substances Act (21 U.S.C. 802(6)), including any substance listed in schedules I through V of 21 CFR part 1308, as they may be revised from time to time.

            2. Except as otherwise provided for in sections 302.700 to 302.780, whenever the doing of anything is required or is prohibited or is declared to be unlawful, any person who shall be convicted of a violation thereof shall be guilty of a class B misdemeanor.

            303.024. 1. Each insurer issuing motor vehicle liability policies in this state, or an agent of the insurer, shall furnish an insurance identification card to the named insured for each motor vehicle insured by a motor vehicle liability policy that complies with the requirements of sections 303.010 to 303.050, 303.060, 303.140, 303.220, 303.290, 303.330 and 303.370.

            2. The insurance identification card shall include all of the following information:

            (1) The name and address of the insurer;

            (2) The name of the named insured;

            (3) The policy number;

            (4) The effective dates of the policy, including month, day and year;

            (5) A description of the insured motor vehicle, including year and make or at least five digits of the vehicle identification number or the word Fleet if the insurance policy covers five or more motor vehicles; and

            (6) The statement "THIS CARD MUST BE CARRIED IN THE INSURED MOTOR VEHICLE FOR PRODUCTION UPON DEMAND" prominently displayed on the card.

            3. A new insurance identification card shall be issued when the insured motor vehicle is changed, when an additional motor vehicle is insured, and when a new policy number is assigned. A replacement insurance identification card shall be issued at the request of the insured in the event of loss of the original insurance identification card.

            4. The director shall furnish each self-insurer, as provided for in section 303.220, an insurance identification card for each motor vehicle so insured. The insurance identification card shall include all of the following information:

            (1) Name of the self-insurer;

            (2) The word self-insured; and

            (3) The statement "THIS CARD MUST BE CARRIED IN THE SELF-INSURED MOTOR VEHICLE FOR PRODUCTION UPON DEMAND" prominently displayed on the card.

            5. An insurance identification card shall be carried in the insured motor vehicle at all times. The operator of an insured motor vehicle shall exhibit the insurance identification card on the demand of any peace officer, commercial vehicle enforcement officer or commercial vehicle inspector who lawfully stops such operator or investigates an accident while that officer or inspector is engaged in the performance of the officer's or inspector's duties. If the operator fails to exhibit an insurance identification card, the officer or inspector shall issue a citation to the operator for a violation of section 303.025. A motor vehicle liability insurance policy, a motor vehicle liability insurance binder, or receipt which contains the policy information required in subsection 2 of this section, shall be satisfactory evidence of insurance in lieu of an insurance identification card.

            6. Any person who knowingly or intentionally produces, manufactures, sells, or otherwise distributes a fraudulent document intended to serve as an insurance identification card is guilty of a class [D] E felony. Any person who knowingly or intentionally possesses a fraudulent document intended to serve as an insurance identification card is guilty of a class B misdemeanor.

            303.025. 1. No owner of a motor vehicle registered in this state, or required to be registered in this state, shall operate, register or maintain registration of a motor vehicle, or permit another person to operate such vehicle, unless the owner maintains the financial responsibility which conforms to the requirements of the laws of this state. No nonresident shall operate or permit another person to operate in this state a motor vehicle registered to such nonresident unless the nonresident maintains the financial responsibility which conforms to the requirements of the laws of the nonresident's state of residence. Furthermore, no person shall operate a motor vehicle owned by another with the knowledge that the owner has not maintained financial responsibility unless such person has financial responsibility which covers the person's operation of the other's vehicle; however, no owner or nonresident shall be in violation of this subsection if he or she fails to maintain financial responsibility on a motor vehicle which is inoperable or being stored and not in operation. The director may prescribe rules and regulations for the implementation of this section.

            2. A motor vehicle owner shall maintain the owner's financial responsibility in a manner provided for in section 303.160, or with a motor vehicle liability policy which conforms to the requirements of the laws of this state. A nonresident motor vehicle owner shall maintain the owner's financial responsibility which conforms to the requirements of the laws of the nonresident's state of residence.

            3. Any person who violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor. A first violation of this section shall be punishable [by a fine not to exceed three hundred dollars] as a class D misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of this section shall be punishable by imprisonment in the county jail for a term not to exceed fifteen days and/or a fine not to exceed [three] five hundred dollars. Prior pleas of guilty and prior findings of guilty shall be pleaded and proven in the same manner as required by section 558.021. However, no person shall be found guilty of violating this section if the operator demonstrates to the court that he or she met the financial responsibility requirements of this section at the time the peace officer, commercial vehicle enforcement officer or commercial vehicle inspector wrote the citation. In addition to any other authorized punishment, the court shall notify the director of revenue of any person convicted pursuant to this section and shall do one of the following:

            (1) Enter an order suspending the driving privilege as of the date of the court order. If the court orders the suspension of the driving privilege, the court shall require the defendant to surrender to it any driver's license then held by such person. The length of the suspension shall be as prescribed in subsection 2 of section 303.042. The court shall forward to the director of revenue the order of suspension of driving privilege and any license surrendered within ten days;

            (2) Forward the record of the conviction for an assessment of four points;

            (3) In lieu of an assessment of points, render an order of supervision as provided in section 302.303. An order of supervision shall not be used in lieu of points more than one time in any thirty-six-month period. Every court having jurisdiction pursuant to the provisions of this section shall forward a record of conviction to the Missouri state highway patrol, or at the written direction of the Missouri state highway patrol, to the department of revenue, in a manner approved by the director of the department of public safety. The director shall establish procedures for the record keeping and administration of this section; or

            (4) For a nonresident, suspend the nonresident's driving privileges in this state in accordance with section 303.030 and notify the official in charge of the issuance of licenses and registration certificates in the state in which such nonresident resides in accordance with section 303.080.

            4. Nothing in sections 303.010 to 303.050, 303.060, 303.140, 303.220, 303.290, 303.330 and 303.370 shall be construed as prohibiting the department of insurance, financial institutions and professional registration from approving or authorizing those exclusions and limitations which are contained in automobile liability insurance policies and the uninsured motorist provisions of automobile liability insurance policies.

            5. If a court enters an order of suspension, the offender may appeal such order directly pursuant to chapter 512 and the provisions of section 302.311 shall not apply.

            304.070. 1. Any person who violates any of the provisions of subsections 1, 3, and 6 of section 304.050 is guilty of a class A misdemeanor. In addition, [beginning July 1, 2005,] the court may suspend the driver's license of any person who violates the provision of subsection 1 of section 304.050. If ordered by the court, the director shall suspend the driver's license for ninety days for a first offense of subsection 1 of section 304.050, and one hundred twenty days for a second or subsequent offense of subsection 1 of section 304.050. Any person who violates subsection 1 of section 304.050 where such violation results in the injury of any child shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony. Any person who violates subsection 1 of section 304.050 where such violation causes the death of any child shall be guilty of a class [C] D felony.

            2. Any appeal of a suspension imposed under subsection 1 of this section shall be a direct appeal of the court order and subject to review by the presiding judge of the circuit court or another judge within the circuit other than the judge who issued the original order to suspend the driver's license. The director of revenue's entry of the court-ordered suspension on the driving record is not a decision subject to review pursuant to section 302.311. Any suspension of the driver's license ordered by the court under this section shall be in addition to any other suspension that may occur as a result of the conviction pursuant to other provisions of law.

            [577.217.] 305.125. If a person refuses upon the request of the officer to submit to a chemical test under section 577.041, then no test shall be given. Any refusal to submit to a test shall be an infraction which may be punished by a fine of up to one thousand dollars. The officer shall inform the person that his or her failure to submit to the test may result in a fine and administrative penalties by the Federal Aviation Administration.

            [577.221.] 305.126. [All positive test results and test refusals] Whenever a person operating an aircraft or acting as a flight crew member of any aircraft has a positive chemical test under chapter 577 or refuses a chemical test under section 577.041, the test result and refusal shall be reported by law enforcement agencies to the Federal Aviation Administration. If a person pleads guilty to or is found guilty of a violation of sections [577.201 and 577.203] 577.015 and 577.016, a report of the conviction shall be forwarded by the court in which the conviction occurred to the Federal Aviation Administration.

            306.110. 1. No person shall [operate any motorboat or watercraft, or] manipulate any water skis, surfboard or other waterborne device in a reckless or negligent manner so as to endanger the life or property of any person.

            2. No person shall [operate any motorboat or watercraft, or] manipulate any water skis, surfboard or other waterborne device while intoxicated or under the influence of any narcotic drug, barbiturate or marijuana.

            306.111. [1.] A person commits the crime of negligent operation of a vessel if when operating a vessel he or she acts with criminal negligence, as defined in subsection 5 of section 562.016, to cause physical injury to any other person or damage to the property of any other person. A person convicted of negligent operation of a vessel is guilty of a class B misdemeanor upon conviction for the first violation, guilty of a class A misdemeanor upon conviction for the second violation, and guilty of a class [D] E felony for conviction for the third and subsequent violations.

            [2. A person commits the crime of operating a vessel while intoxicated if he or she operates a vessel on the Mississippi River, Missouri River or the lakes of this state while in an intoxicated condition. Operating a vessel while intoxicated is a class B misdemeanor.

            3. A person commits the crime of involuntary manslaughter with a vessel if, while in an intoxicated condition, he or she operates any vessel and, when so operating, acts with criminal negligence to cause the death of any person. Involuntary manslaughter with a vessel is a class C felony.

            4. A person commits the crime of assault with a vessel in the second degree if, while in an intoxicated condition, he or she operates any vessel and, when so operating, acts with criminal negligence to cause physical injury to any other person. Assault with a vessel in the second degree is a class D felony.

            5. For purposes of this section, a person is in an intoxicated condition when he or she is under the influence of alcohol, a controlled substance or drug, or any combination thereof.]

            306.420. 1. Upon the satisfaction of a lien or encumbrance on an outboard motor, motorboat, vessel, or watercraft, the lienholder shall within ten days execute a release of his or her lien or encumbrance, on the certificate or separate document, and mail or deliver the certificate or separate document to the owner or any person who delivers to the lienholder an authorization from the owner to receive the documentation. The release on the certificate or separate document shall be notarized. Each perfected subordinate lienholder, if any, shall release such lien or encumbrance as provided in this section for the first lienholder. The owner may cause the certificate of title, the release, and the required fee to be mailed or delivered to the director of revenue, who shall release the lienholder's rights on the certificate and issue a new certificate of title.

            2. If the electronic certificate of title is in the possession of the director of revenue, the lienholder shall notify the director within ten business days of any release of lien and provide the director with the most current address of the owner. The director shall note such release on the electronic certificate and if no other lien exists, the director shall mail or deliver the certificate free of any lien to the owner.

            3. Any person who knowingly and intentionally sends in a separate document releasing a lien of another without authority to do so shall be guilty of a class [C] D felony.

            311.315. 1. A person commits the offense of manufacturing a false identification if he or she possesses any means of identification for the purpose of manufacturing and providing or selling a false identification card to a person under the age of twenty-one for the purpose of purchasing or obtaining alcohol.

            2. The offense of manufacturing a false identification is a class A misdemeanor.

            311.325. 1. Any person under the age of twenty-one years, who purchases or attempts to purchase, or has in his or her possession, any intoxicating liquor as defined in section 311.020 or who is visibly in an intoxicated condition as defined in section 577.001, or has a detectable blood alcohol content of more than two-hundredths of one percent or more by weight of alcohol in such person's blood is guilty of a misdemeanor. A first violation of this section shall be punishable [by a fine not to exceed three hundred dollars] as a class D misdemeanor. A second or subsequent violation of this section shall be punishable [by imprisonment in the county jail for a term not to exceed one year and/or a fine not to exceed one thousand dollars] as a class A misdemeanor. Prior pleas of guilty and prior findings of guilty shall be pleaded and proven in the same manner as required by section 558.021. For purposes of prosecution under this section or any other provision of this chapter involving an alleged illegal sale or transfer of intoxicating liquor to a person under twenty-one years of age, a manufacturer-sealed container describing that there is intoxicating liquor therein need not be opened or the contents therein tested to verify that there is intoxicating liquor in such container. The alleged violator may allege that there was not intoxicating liquor in such container, but the burden of proof of such allegation is on such person, as it shall be presumed that such a sealed container describing that there is intoxicating liquor therein contains intoxicating liquor.

            2. For purposes of determining violations of any provision of this chapter, or of any rule or regulation of the supervisor of alcohol and tobacco control, a manufacturer-sealed container describing that there is intoxicating liquor therein need not be opened or the contents therein tested to verify that there is intoxicating liquor in such container. The alleged violator may allege that there was not intoxicating liquor in such container, but the burden of proof of such allegation is on such person, as it shall be presumed that such a sealed container describing that there is intoxicating liquor therein contains intoxicating liquor.

            3. Any person under the age of twenty-one years who purchases or attempts to purchase, or has in his or her possession, any intoxicating liquor, or who is visibly in an intoxicated condition as defined in section 577.001, shall be deemed to have given consent to a chemical test or tests of the person's breath, blood, saliva, or urine for the purpose of determining the alcohol or drug content of the person's blood. The implied consent to submit to the chemical tests listed in this subsection shall be limited to not more than two such tests arising from the same arrest, incident, or charge. Chemical analysis of the person's breath, blood, saliva, or urine shall be performed according to methods approved by the state department of health and senior services by licensed medical personnel or by a person possessing a valid permit issued by the state department of health and senior services for this purpose. The state department of health and senior services shall approve satisfactory techniques, devices, equipment, or methods to be considered valid and shall establish standards to ascertain the qualifications and competence of individuals to conduct analyses and to issue permits which shall be subject to termination or revocation by the state department of health and senior services. The person tested may have a physician, or a qualified technician, chemist, registered nurse, or other qualified person at the choosing and expense of the person to be tested, administer a test in addition to any administered at the direction of a law enforcement officer. The failure or inability to obtain an additional test by a person shall not preclude the admission of evidence relating to the test taken at the direction of a law enforcement officer. Upon the request of the person who is tested, full information concerning the test shall be made available to such person. Full information is limited to the following:

            (1) The type of test administered and the procedures followed;

            (2) The time of the collection of the blood or breath sample or urine analyzed;

            (3) The numerical results of the test indicating the alcohol content of the blood and breath and urine;

            (4) The type and status of any permit which was held by the person who performed the test;

            (5) If the test was administered by means of a breath-testing instrument, the date of performance of the most recent required maintenance of such instrument. Full information does not include manuals, schematics, or software of the instrument used to test the person or any other material that is not in the actual possession of the state. Additionally, full information does not include information in the possession of the manufacturer of the test instrument.

            4. The provisions of this section shall not apply to a student who:

            (1) Is eighteen years of age or older;

            (2) Is enrolled in an accredited college or university and is a student in a culinary course;

            (3) Is required to taste, but not consume or imbibe, any beer, ale, porter, wine, or other similar malt or fermented beverage as part of the required curriculum; and

            (4) Tastes a beverage under subdivision (3) of this subsection only for instructional purposes during classes that are part of the curriculum of the accredited college or university. The beverage must at all times remain in the possession and control of an authorized instructor of the college or university, who must be twenty-one years of age or older. Nothing in this subsection may be construed to allow a student under the age of twenty-one to receive any beer, ale, porter, wine, or other similar malt or fermented beverage unless the beverage is delivered as part of the student's required curriculum and the beverage is used only for instructional purposes during classes conducted as part of the curriculum.

            313.004. 1. There is hereby created the "Missouri Gaming Commission" consisting of five members appointed by the governor, with the advice and consent of the senate. Each member of the Missouri gaming commission shall be a resident of this state. No member shall have pled guilty to or shall have been convicted of a felony or gambling-related offense. Not more than three members shall be affiliated with the same political party. No member of the commission shall be an elected official. The overall membership of the commission shall reflect experience in law enforcement, civil and criminal investigation and financial principles.

            2. The initial members of the commission shall be appointed within thirty days of April 29, 1993. Of the members first appointed, one shall be appointed for a one-year term, two shall be appointed for a two-year term and two shall be appointed for a three-year term. Thereafter, all members appointed shall serve for a three-year term. No person shall serve as a member more than six years. The governor shall designate one of the members as the chair. The governor may remove any member of the commission from office for malfeasance or neglect of duty in office. The governor may also replace any member of the commission, with the advice and consent of the senate, when any responsibility concerning the state lottery, pari-mutuel wagering or any other form of gaming is placed under the jurisdiction of the commission.

            3. The commission shall meet at least quarterly in accordance with its rules. In addition, special meetings may be called by the chair or any two members of the commission upon twenty-four-hour written notice to each member. No action of the commission shall be binding unless taken at a meeting at which at least three of the five members are present and shall vote in favor thereof.

            4. The commission shall perform all duties and have all the powers and responsibilities conferred and imposed upon it relating to excursion gambling boats and, after June 30, 1994, the lawful operation of the game of bingo under this chapter. Within the commission, there shall be established a division of gambling and after June 30, 1994, the division of bingo. Subject to appropriations, the commission may hire an executive director and any employees as it may deem necessary to carry out the commission's duties. The commission shall have authority to require investigations of any employee or applicant for employment as deemed necessary and use such information or any other information in the determination of employment. The commission shall promulgate rules and regulations establishing a code of ethics for its employees which shall include, but not be limited to, restrictions on which employees shall be prohibited from participating in or wagering on any game or gaming operation subject to the jurisdiction of the commission. The commission shall determine if any other employees of the commission or any licensee of the commission shall participate or wager in any operation under the jurisdiction of the commission.

            5. On April 29, 1993, all the authority, powers, duties, functions, records, personnel, property, matters pending and all other pertinent vestiges of the state tourism commission relating to the regulation of excursion gambling boats and, after June 30, 1994, of the department of revenue relating to the regulation of the game of bingo shall be transferred to the Missouri gaming commission.

            6. The commission shall be assigned to the department of public safety as a type III division, but the director of the department of public safety has no supervision, authority or control over the actions or decisions of the commission.

            7. Members of the Missouri gaming commission shall receive as compensation, the amount of one hundred dollars for every day in which the commission holds a meeting, when such meeting is subject to the recording of minutes as provided in chapter 610, and shall be reimbursed for reasonable expenses incurred in the performance of their duties. The chair shall receive as additional compensation one hundred dollars for each month such person serves on the commission in that capacity.

            8. No member or employee of the commission shall be appointed or continue to be a member or employee who is licensed by the commission as an excursion gambling boat operator or supplier and no member or employee of the commission shall be appointed or continue to be a member or employee who is related to any person within the second degree of consanguinity or affinity who is licensed by the commission as an excursion gambling boat operator or supplier. The commission shall determine by rule and regulation appropriate restrictions on the relationship of members and employees of the commission to persons holding or applying for occupational licenses from the commission or to employees of any licensee of the commission. No peace officer, as defined by section 590.100, who is designated to have direct regulator authority related to excursion gambling boats shall be employed by any excursion gambling boat or supplier licensed by the commission while employed as a peace officer. No member or employee of the commission or any employee of the state attorney general's office or the state highway patrol who has direct authority over the regulation or investigation of any applicant or licensee of the commission or any peace officer of any city or county which has approved excursion boat gambling shall accept any gift or gratuity from an applicant or licensee while serving as a member or while under such employment. Any person knowingly in violation of the provisions of this subsection is guilty of a class A misdemeanor. Any such member, officer or employee who personally or whose prohibited relative knowingly violates the provisions of this subsection, in addition to the foregoing penalty, shall, upon conviction, immediately and thereupon forfeit his office or employment.

            9. The commission may enter into agreements with the Federal Bureau of Investigation, the Federal Internal Revenue Service, the state attorney general or any state, federal or local agency the commission deems necessary to carry out the duties of the commission. No state agency shall count employees used in any agreements entered into with the commission against any personnel cap authorized by any statute. Any consideration paid by the commission for the purpose of entering into, or to carry out, any agreement shall be considered an administrative expense of the commission. When such agreements are entered into for responsibilities relating to excursion gambling boats, the commission shall require excursion gambling boat licensees to pay for such services under rules and regulations of the commission. The commission may provide by rules and regulations for the offset of any prize or winnings won by any person making a wager subject to the jurisdiction of the commission, when practical, when such person has an outstanding debt owed the state of Missouri.

            10. No person who has served as a member or employee of the commission, as a member of the general assembly, as an elected or appointed official of the state or of any city or county of this state in which the licensing of excursion gambling boats has been approved in either the city or county or both or any employee of the state highway patrol designated by the superintendent of the highway patrol or any employee of the state attorney general's office designated by the state attorney general to have direct regulatory authority related to excursion gambling boats shall, while in such office or during such employment and during the first two years after termination of his office or position, obtain direct ownership interest in or be employed by any excursion gambling boat licensed by the commission or which has applied for a license to the commission or enter into a contractual relationship related to direct gaming activity. A "direct ownership interest" shall be defined as any financial interest, equitable interest, beneficial interest, or ownership control held by the public official or employee, or such person's family member related within the second degree of consanguinity or affinity, in any excursion gambling boat operation or any parent or subsidiary company which owns or operates an excursion gambling boat or as a supplier to any excursion gambling boat which has applied for or been granted a license by the commission, provided that a direct ownership interest shall not include any equity interest purchased at fair market value or equity interest received as consideration for goods and services provided at fair market value of less than one percent of the total outstanding shares of stock of any publicly traded corporation or certificates of partnership of any limited partnership which is listed on a regulated stock exchange or automated quotation system. Any person who knowingly violates the provisions of this subsection is guilty of a class [D] E felony. Any such member, officer or employee who personally and knowingly violates the provisions of this subsection, in addition to the foregoing penalty, shall, upon conviction, immediately and thereupon forfeit his office or employment. For purposes of this subsection, "appointed official" shall mean any official of this state or of any city or county authorized under subsection 10 of section 313.812 appointed to a position which has discretionary powers over the operations of any licensee or applicant for licensure by the commission. This shall only apply if the appointed official has a direct ownership interest in an excursion gambling boat licensed by the commission or which has applied for a license to the commission to be docked within the jurisdiction of his or her appointment. No elected or appointed official, his or her spouse or dependent child shall, while in such office or within two years after termination of his or her office or position, be employed by an applicant for an excursion gambling boat license or an excursion gambling boat licensed by the commission. Any other person related to an elected or appointed official within the second degree of consanguinity or affinity employed by an applicant for an excursion gambling boat license or excursion gambling boat licensed by the commission shall disclose this relationship to the commission. Such disclosure shall be in writing and shall include who is employing such individual, that person's relationship to the elected or appointed official, and a job description for which the person is being employed. The commission may require additional information as it may determine necessary.

            11. The commission may enter into contracts with any private entity the commission deems necessary to carry out the duties of the commission, other than criminal law enforcement, provision of legal counsel before the courts and other agencies of this state, and the enforcement of liquor laws. The commission may require provisions for special auditing requirements, investigations and restrictions on the employees of any private entity with which a contract is entered into by the commission.

            12. Notwithstanding the provisions of chapter 610 to the contrary, all criminal justice records shall be available to any agency or commission responsible for licensing or investigating applicants or licensees applying to any gaming commission of this state.

            313.040. The conducting of bingo is subject to the following restrictions:

            (1) (a) The entire net receipts over and above the actual cost of conducting the game shall be exclusively devoted to the lawful, charitable, religious or philanthropic purposes of the organization permitted to conduct that game and no receipts shall be used to compensate in any manner any person who works for or is in any way affiliated with the licensed organization. Any person who violates the provisions of this paragraph shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony;

            (b) Proceeds from the game of bingo may not be loaned to any person, except that this provision shall not prohibit the investment of the proceeds in any licensed banking or savings institution, instrument of the United States, Missouri, or any political subdivision thereof. Any person who violates the provisions of this paragraph shall be guilty of a class C misdemeanor; and

            (c) The actual cost of conducting the game shall only include the following:

            a. The cost of the prizes;

            b. The purchasing of the bingo cards from a licensed supplier;

            c. The purchasing or leasing of the equipment used in conducting the game;

            d. The lease rental on the premises in which the game is conducted to include an allocation of utility costs, if applicable, costs of providing security, including the employment of a reasonable number of security personnel at a compensation level which complies with rules and regulations promulgated by the commission and such personnel is actually present and engaged in security duties, and bookkeeping and accounting expenses;

            e. The actual cost of providing reasonable janitorial services. The cost of such services shall not be above the fair market rate charged for similar services in the community where the bingo game is being conducted;

            f. Subject to constitutional restrictions, if any, the fair market cost of advertising each bingo occasion. Such advertising shall be procured in accordance with the rules and regulations of the commission;

            (2) No person shall participate in conducting or managing the game of bingo except a person who has been a bona fide member of the licensed organization for at least two years immediately preceding such participation, who is not a paid staff person of the licensed organization employed and compensated specifically for conducting or managing the game of bingo and who volunteers the time and service necessary to conduct the game. Subject to constitutional restrictions, if any, no person shall participate in the actual operation of the game of bingo under the direction of a person conducting or managing the game of bingo, except a person who has been a bona fide member of the licensed organization for at least one year immediately preceding such participation, who is not a paid staff person of the licensed organization employed and compensated specifically for operating the game of bingo and who volunteers the time and service necessary to operate the game. If any post or organization, by its national charter, has established an auxiliary organization for spouses, then members of the auxiliary organization shall be considered bona fide members of the licensed organization and members of the post or organization shall be considered bona fide members of the auxiliary organization for the purposes of this subdivision. Any person who is a duly ordained member of the clergy and any person who is a full-time employee or staff member of the licensed organization employed for at least two years by that organization in a capacity not directly related to the conducting or managing of the game of bingo, who has specific assigned duties under a definite job description with the licensed organization, and who volunteers time and assistance to the organization without compensation for such time and assistance in the conducting and managing of the game of bingo by the organization shall not be considered a paid staff person for the purposes of this subdivision. No full-time employee or staff member shall volunteer such time and assistance to more than one organization nor more than one day in any week. The commission shall establish guidelines for the determination of whether a person is a paid staff person within the meaning of this subdivision and shall specifically approve any full-time employee or staff member of the organization before such employee or staff member may volunteer time and assistance in the conducting and managing of bingo games for any organization. The commission may suspend the approval of any employee or staff member;

            (3) No person, firm, partnership or corporation shall receive any remuneration, profit or gift for participating in the management, conduct or operation of the game, including the granting or use of bingo cards without charge or at a reduced charge from the licensed organization or from any other source;

            (4) The aggregate retail value of all prizes or merchandise awarded, except prizes or merchandise awarded by pull-tab cards and progressive bingo games, in any single day of bingo may not exceed the amount set by the commission per regulation;

            (5) The number of games may not exceed sixty-two in any one day, including regular and special games. For purposes of this subdivision, the use of a pull-tab card and progressive bingo games shall not count as one of the sixty-two games per day, as limited by this subdivision, but no pull-tab card may be used except in conjunction with one of such sixty-two games;

            (6) The price paid for a single bingo card under the license may not exceed one dollar. The commission may establish by rule or regulation the number of bingo cards which may be placed on a single bingo sheet. The price for a single pull-tab card may not exceed one dollar. A licensee may not require a player to purchase more than a standard pack in order to participate in the bingo occasion;

            (7) The number of bingo days conducted by a licensee under the provisions of sections 313.005 to 313.080 shall be limited to two days per week;

            (8) Any person, officer or director of any firm or corporation, and any partner of any partnership renting or leasing to a licensed organization equipment or premises for use in a game shall meet all the qualifications set forth in subdivisions (1) to (5) and (8) of section 313.035 and shall not be a paid staff person of the licensee. Proof of compliance with this subdivision shall be submitted to the commission by the licensee in the manner required by the commission;

            (9) Subject to constitutional restrictions, if any, an organization licensed to conduct bingo in the state of Missouri may advertise a bingo occasion or special event bingo if expenditures for advertisement do not exceed ten percent of the total amount expended from receipts of bingo conducted by the licensed organization for charitable, religious or philanthropic purposes;

            (10) No person under the age of sixteen years may play or participate in the conducting of bingo. Any person under the age of sixteen years may be within the area where bingo is being played only when accompanied by his parent or guardian;

            (11) No licensee shall lease premises in which it conducts bingo games from someone who is not a hall provider licensed by the commission;

            (12) No licensee shall pay any consulting fees to any person for any service performed in relation to the bingo game;

            (13) No licensee shall pay concession fees to any person who provides refreshments to the participants in the bingo game;

            (14) No licensee shall conduct a bingo session at any time during the period between 1:00 a.m. and 7:00 a.m.;

            (15) No licensee, while a bingo game is being conducted, shall knowingly permit entry to any part of the licensed premises to any person of notorious or unsavory reputation or who has an extensive police record or who has been convicted of a felony;

            (16) No vending machine or any mechanized coin-operated machine may be used to sell pull-tab cards or to pay prize money, merchandise gifts or any other form of a prize;

            (17) No rented or reusable bingo cards may be used to conduct any game. All games must be conducted with disposable paper bingo cards that are marked by permanent ink as prescribed by the rules and regulations of the commission, or by electronic bingo card monitoring device as approved by the commission;

            (18) No licensee shall purchase or use any bingo supplies from a person who is not licensed by the state of Missouri as a bingo supplier.

            313.290. 1. No person shall sell a ticket or share at a price other than that fixed by rule or regulation of the commission. No person other than a licensed lottery game retailer shall sell lottery tickets or shares, but nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent any person from giving lottery tickets or shares to another as a gift. Any violation of this section is a class A misdemeanor.

            2. Any person who falsely or fraudulently makes, forges, alters or counterfeits, or causes or procures to be made, forged, altered or counterfeited, any state lottery ticket, or any part thereof, or who knowingly and willfully utters, publishes, passes or tenders as true, any forged, altered or counterfeited state lottery ticket is guilty of a class [C] D felony. Any person who with intent to defraud secures, manufactures, or causes to be secured or manufactured, or has in his possession any counterfeit state lottery ticket or device, is guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            313.550. 1. The commission may issue subpoenas for the attendance of witnesses or the production of any records, books, memoranda, documents, or other papers or things, to enable any of them to effectually discharge its or his duties, and may administer oaths or affirmations as necessary in connection therewith. In addition, the commission shall have the authority to issue subpoenas under section 536.077 in contested cases.

            2. Any person subpoenaed who fails to appear at the time and place specified in answer to the subpoena and to bring any papers or things specified in the subpoena, or who upon such appearance, refuses to testify or produce such records or things, upon conviction, is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.

            3. Any person who testifies falsely under oath in any proceeding before, or any investigation by, the commission, its secretary, or the stewards, upon conviction, shall be guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            313.660. 1. No individual shall for a fee, directly or indirectly, accept anything of value to be wagered or to be transmitted or delivered for wager in any pari-mutuel system of wagering on horse racing or for a fee deliver anything of value which has been received outside of the enclosure of a race track holding a horse race licensed under sections 313.500 to 313.710 to be placed as wagers in the pari-mutuel pool within such enclosure.

            2. Any individual violating the provisions of this section shall upon conviction be guilty of a class [C] D felony.

            313.830. 1. A person is guilty of a class [D] E felony for any of the following:

            (1) Operating a gambling excursion where wagering is used or to be used without a license issued by the commission;

            (2) Operating a gambling excursion where wagering is permitted other than in the manner specified by section 313.817; or

            (3) Acting, or employing a person to act, as a shill or decoy to encourage participation in a gambling game.

            2. A person is guilty of a class B misdemeanor for the first offense and a class A misdemeanor for the second and subsequent offenses for any of the following:

            (1) Permitting a person under the age of twenty-one to make a wager while on an excursion gambling boat;

            (2) Making or attempting to make a wager while on an excursion gambling boat when such person is under the age of twenty-one years; or

            (3) Aiding a person who is under the age of twenty-one in entering an excursion gambling boat or in making or attempting to make a wager while on an excursion gambling boat.             3. A person wagering or accepting a wager at any location outside the excursion gambling boat is in violation of section 572.040.

            4. A person commits a class [D] E felony and, in addition, shall be barred for life from excursion gambling boats under the jurisdiction of the commission, if the person:

            (1) Offers, promises, or gives anything of value or benefit to a person who is connected with an excursion gambling boat operator including, but not limited to, an officer or employee of a licensee or holder of an occupational license pursuant to an agreement or arrangement or with the intent that the promise or thing of value or benefit will influence the actions of the person to whom the offer, promise, or gift was made in order to affect or attempt to affect the outcome of a gambling game, or to influence official action of a member of the commission;

            (2) Solicits or knowingly accepts or receives a promise of anything of value or benefit while the person is connected with an excursion gambling boat including, but not limited to, an officer or employee of a licensee, or holder of an occupational license, pursuant to an understanding or arrangement or with the intent that the promise or thing of value or benefit will influence the actions of the person to affect or attempt to affect the outcome of a gambling game, or to influence official action of a member of the commission;

            (3) Uses a device to assist in any of the following:

            (a) In projecting the outcome of the game;

            (b) In keeping track of the cards played;

            (c) In analyzing the probability of the occurrence of an event relating to the gambling game; or

            (d) In analyzing the strategy for playing or betting to be used in the game, except as permitted by the commission;

            (4) Cheats at a gambling game;

            (5) Manufactures, sells, or distributes any cards, chips, dice, game or device which is intended to be used to violate any provision of sections 313.800 to 313.850;

            (6) Instructs a person in cheating or in the use of a device for that purpose with the knowledge or intent that the information or use conveyed may be employed to violate any provision of sections 313.800 to 313.850;

            (7) Alters or misrepresents the outcome of a gambling game on which wagers have been made after the outcome is made sure but before it is revealed to the players;

            (8) Places a bet after acquiring knowledge, not available to all players, of the outcome of the gambling game which is the subject of the bet or to aid a person in acquiring the knowledge for the purpose of placing a bet contingent on that outcome;

            (9) Claims, collects, or takes, or attempts to claim, collect, or take, money or anything of value in or from the gambling games, with intent to defraud, without having made a wager contingent on winning a gambling game, or claims, collects, or takes an amount of money or thing of value of greater value than the amount won;

            (10) Knowingly entices or induces a person to go to any place where a gambling game is being conducted or operated in violation of the provisions of sections 313.800 to 313.850 with the intent that the other person plays or participates in that gambling game;

            (11) Uses counterfeit chips or tokens in a gambling game;

            (12) Knowingly uses, other than chips, tokens, coin, of other methods of credit approved by the commission, legal tender of the United States of America, or to use coin not of the denomination as the coin intended to be used in the gambling games;

            (13) Has in the person's possession any device intended to be used to violate a provision of sections 313.800 to 313.850;

            (14) Has in the person's possession, except a gambling licensee or employee of a gambling licensee acting in furtherance of the employee's employment, any key or device designed for the purpose of opening, entering, or affecting the operation of a gambling game, drop box, or an electronic or mechanical device connected with the gambling game or for removing coins, tokens, chips or other contents of the gambling game; or

            (15) Knowingly makes a false statement of any material fact to the commission, its agents or employees.

            5. The possession of one or more of the devices described in subdivision (3), (5), (13) or (14) of subsection 4 of this section permits a rebuttable inference that the possessor intended to use the devices for cheating.

            6. Except for wagers on gambling games or exchanges for money as provided in section 313.817, or as payment for food or beverages on the excursion gambling boat, a licensee who exchanges tokens, chips, or other forms of credit to be used on gambling games for anything of value commits a class B misdemeanor.

            7. If the commission determines that reasonable grounds to believe that a violation of sections 313.800 to 313.850 has occurred or is occurring which is a criminal offense, the commission shall refer such matter to both the state attorney general and the prosecuting attorney or circuit attorney having jurisdiction. The state attorney general and the prosecuting attorney or circuit attorney with such jurisdiction shall have concurrent jurisdiction to commence actions for violations of sections 313.800 to 313.850 where such violations have occurred.

            8. Venue for all crimes committed on an excursion gambling boat shall be the jurisdiction of the home dock city or county or such county where a home dock city is located.

            317.018. 1. Combative fighting is prohibited in the state of Missouri.

            2. Anyone who promotes or participates in combative fighting, or anyone who serves as an agent, principal partner, publicist, vendor, producer, referee, or contractor of or for combative fighting is guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            3. Any medical personnel who administers to, treats or assists any participants of combative fighting shall not be subject to the provisions of this section.

            4. Nothing in section 317.001 or this section is intended to regulate, or interfere with or make illegal, traditional, sanctioned amateur or scholastic boxing, amateur or scholastic wrestling, amateur or scholastic kickboxing, or amateur or scholastic full-contact karate or amateur or scholastic mixed martial arts.

            [571.085.] 319.1000. Residents of the state of Missouri may purchase firearms in any state, provided that such residents conform to the applicable provisions of the Federal Gun Control Act of 1968, and regulations thereunder, and provided further that such residents conform to the provisions of law applicable to such purchase in the state of Missouri and in the state in which the purchase is made.

            [571.087.] 319.1005. Residents of any state may purchase firearms in the state of Missouri, provided that such residents conform to the applicable provisions of the Federal Gun Control Act of 1968, and regulations thereunder, and provided further that such residents conform to the provisions of law applicable to such purchase in the state of Missouri and in the state in which such persons reside.

            [571.093.] 319.1007. If any sheriff retains records of permits to obtain concealable firearms issued under former section 571.090, as repealed by senate bills nos. 62 and 41 of the ninety-fourth general assembly, then such records shall be closed to the public. No such record shall be made available for any purpose whatsoever unless its disclosure is mandated by a valid court order relating to a criminal investigation.

            [571.095.] 319.1010. Upon conviction for or attempting to commit a felony in violation of any law perpetrated in whole or in part by the use of a firearm, the court may, in addition to the penalty provided by law for such offense, order the confiscation and disposal or sale or trade to a licensed firearms dealer of firearms and ammunition used in the commission of the crime or found in the possession or under the immediate control of the defendant at the time of his or her arrest. The proceeds of any sale or gains from trade shall be the property of the police department or sheriff's department responsible for the defendant's arrest or the confiscation of the firearms and ammunition. If such firearms or ammunition are not the property of the convicted felon, they shall be returned to their rightful owner if he or she is known and was not a participant in the crime. Any proceeds collected under this section shall be deposited with the municipality or by the county treasurer into the county sheriff's revolving fund established in section 50.535.

            [571.101.] 319.1025. 1. All applicants for concealed carry endorsements issued pursuant to subsection 7 of this section must satisfy the requirements of sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043. If the said applicant can show qualification as provided by sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043, the county or city sheriff shall issue a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement. Upon receipt of such certificate, the certificate holder shall apply for a driver's license or nondriver's license with the director of revenue in order to obtain a concealed carry endorsement. Any person who has been issued a concealed carry endorsement on a driver's license or nondriver's license and such endorsement or license has not been suspended, revoked, cancelled, or denied may carry concealed firearms on or about his or her person or within a vehicle. A concealed carry endorsement shall be valid for a period of three years from the date of issuance or renewal. The concealed carry endorsement is valid throughout this state.

            2. A certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to subsection 7 of this section shall be issued by the sheriff or his or her designee of the county or city in which the applicant resides, if the applicant:

            (1) Is at least twenty-one years [of age] old, is a citizen of the United States and either:

            (a) Has assumed residency in this state; or

            (b) Is a member of the armed forces stationed in Missouri, or the spouse of such member of the military;

            (2) Is at least twenty-one years [of age] old, or is at least eighteen years [of age] old and a member of the United States Armed Forces or honorably discharged from the United States Armed Forces, and is a citizen of the United States and either:

            (a) Has assumed residency in this state;

            (b) Is a member of the armed forces stationed in Missouri; or

            (c) The spouse of such member of the military stationed in Missouri and twenty-one years [of age] old;

            (3) Has not [pled guilty to or entered a plea of nolo contendere or been convicted of a crime] been found guilty of an offense punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year under the laws of any state or of the United States other than a crime classified as a misdemeanor under the laws of any state and punishable by a term of imprisonment of one year or less that does not involve an explosive weapon, firearm, firearm silencer or gas gun;

            (4) Has not been [convicted of, pled guilty to or entered a plea of nolo contendere to] found guilty of one or more misdemeanor offenses involving crimes of violence within a five-year period immediately preceding application for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement or if the applicant has not been [convicted] found guilty of two or more misdemeanor offenses involving driving while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or drugs or the possession or abuse of a controlled substance within a five-year period immediately preceding application for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement;

            (5) Is not a fugitive from justice or currently charged in an information or indictment with the commission of a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year under the laws of any state of the United States other than a crime classified as a misdemeanor under the laws of any state and punishable by a term of imprisonment of two years or less that does not involve an explosive weapon, firearm, firearm silencer, or gas gun;

            (6) Has not been discharged under dishonorable conditions from the United States armed forces;

            (7) Has not engaged in a pattern of behavior, documented in public records, that causes the sheriff to have a reasonable belief that the applicant presents a danger to himself or herself or others;

            (8) Is not adjudged mentally incompetent at the time of application or for five years prior to application, or has not been committed to a mental health facility, as defined in section 632.005, or a similar institution located in another state following a hearing at which the defendant was represented by counsel or a representative;

            (9) Submits a completed application for a certificate of qualification as described in subsection 3 of this section;

            (10) Submits an affidavit attesting that the applicant complies with the concealed carry safety training requirement pursuant to subsections 1 and 2 of section [571.111] 319.1034;

            (11) Is not the respondent of a valid full order of protection which is still in effect.

            3. The application for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement issued by the sheriff of the county of the applicant's residence shall contain only the following information:

            (1) The applicant's name, address, telephone number, gender, and date and place of birth;

            (2) An affirmation that the applicant has assumed residency in Missouri or is a member of the armed forces stationed in Missouri or the spouse of such a member of the armed forces and is a citizen of the United States;

            (3) An affirmation that the applicant is at least twenty-one years [of age] old or is eighteen years [of age] old or older and a member of the United States Armed Forces or honorably discharged from the United States Armed Forces;

            (4) An affirmation that the applicant has not [pled guilty to or been convicted of a crime] been found guilty of an offense punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year under the laws of any state or of the United States other than a crime classified as a misdemeanor under the laws of any state and punishable by a term of imprisonment of one year or less that does not involve an explosive weapon, firearm, firearm silencer, or gas gun;

            (5) An affirmation that the applicant has not been [convicted of, pled guilty to, or entered a plea of nolo contendere to] found guilty of one or more misdemeanor offenses involving crimes of violence within a five-year period immediately preceding application for a certificate of qualification to obtain a concealed carry endorsement or if the applicant has not been [convicted] found guilty of two or more misdemeanor offenses involving driving while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or drugs or the possession or abuse of a controlled substance within a five-year period immediately preceding application for a certificate of qualification to obtain a concealed carry endorsement;

            (6) An affirmation that the applicant is not a fugitive from justice or currently charged in an information or indictment with the commission of a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year under the laws of any state or of the United States other than a crime classified as a misdemeanor under the laws of any state and punishable by a term of imprisonment of two years or less that does not involve an explosive weapon, firearm, firearm silencer or gas gun;

            (7) An affirmation that the applicant has not been discharged under dishonorable conditions from the United States armed forces;

            (8) An affirmation that the applicant is not adjudged mentally incompetent at the time of application or for five years prior to application, or has not been committed to a mental health facility, as defined in section 632.005, or a similar institution located in another state, except that a person whose release or discharge from a facility in this state pursuant to chapter 632, or a similar discharge from a facility in another state, occurred more than five years ago without subsequent recommitment may apply;

            (9) An affirmation that the applicant has received firearms safety training that meets the standards of applicant firearms safety training defined in subsection 1 or 2 of section [571.111] 319.1034;

            (10) An affirmation that the applicant, to the applicant's best knowledge and belief, is not the respondent of a valid full order of protection which is still in effect; and

            (11) A conspicuous warning that false statements made by the applicant will result in prosecution for perjury pursuant to the laws of the state of Missouri.

            4. An application for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement shall be made to the sheriff of the county or any city not within a county in which the applicant resides. An application shall be filed in writing, signed under oath and under the penalties of perjury, and shall state whether the applicant complies with each of the requirements specified in subsection 2 of this section. In addition to the completed application, the applicant for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement must also submit the following:

            (1) A photocopy of a firearms safety training certificate of completion or other evidence of completion of a firearms safety training course that meets the standards established in subsection 1 or 2 of section [571.111] 319.1034; and

            (2) A nonrefundable certificate of qualification fee as provided by subsection 10 or 11 of this section.

            5. Before an application for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement is approved, the sheriff shall make only such inquiries as he or she deems necessary into the accuracy of the statements made in the application. The sheriff may require that the applicant display a Missouri driver's license or nondriver's license or military identification and orders showing the person being stationed in Missouri. In order to determine the applicant's suitability for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement, the applicant shall be fingerprinted. The sheriff shall request a criminal background check through the appropriate law enforcement agency within three working days after submission of the properly completed application for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement. If no disqualifying record is identified by the fingerprint check at the state level, the fingerprints shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for a national criminal history record check. Upon receipt of the completed background check, the sheriff shall issue a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement within three working days. The sheriff shall issue the certificate within forty-five calendar days if the criminal background check has not been received, provided that the sheriff shall revoke any such certificate and endorsement within twenty-four hours of receipt of any background check that results in a disqualifying record, and shall notify the department of revenue.

            6. The sheriff may refuse to approve an application for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement if he or she determines that any of the requirements specified in subsection 2 of this section have not been met, or if he or she has a substantial and demonstrable reason to believe that the applicant has rendered a false statement regarding any of the provisions of sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043. If the applicant is found to be ineligible, the sheriff is required to deny the application, and notify the applicant in writing, stating the grounds for denial and informing the applicant of the right to submit, within thirty days, any additional documentation relating to the grounds of the denial. Upon receiving any additional documentation, the sheriff shall reconsider his or her decision and inform the applicant within thirty days of the result of the reconsideration. The applicant shall further be informed in writing of the right to appeal the denial pursuant to subsections 2, 3, 4, and 5 of section [571.114] 319.1037. After two additional reviews and denials by the sheriff, the person submitting the application shall appeal the denial pursuant to subsections 2, 3, 4, and 5 of section [571.114] 319.1037.

            7. If the application is approved, the sheriff shall issue a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement to the applicant within a period not to exceed three working days after his or her approval of the application. The applicant shall sign the certificate of qualification in the presence of the sheriff or his or her designee and shall within seven days of receipt of the certificate of qualification take the certificate of qualification to the department of revenue. Upon verification of the certificate of qualification and completion of a driver's license or nondriver's license application pursuant to chapter 302, the director of revenue shall issue a new driver's license or nondriver's license with an endorsement which identifies that the applicant has received a certificate of qualification to carry concealed weapons issued pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043 if the applicant is otherwise qualified to receive such driver's license or nondriver's license. Notwithstanding any other provision of chapter 302, a nondriver's license with a concealed carry endorsement shall expire three years from the date the certificate of qualification was issued pursuant to this section. The requirements for the director of revenue to issue a concealed carry endorsement pursuant to this subsection shall not be effective until July 1, 2004, and the certificate of qualification issued by a county sheriff pursuant to subsection 1 of this section shall allow the person issued such certificate to carry a concealed weapon pursuant to the requirements of subsection 1 of section [571.107] 319.1031 in lieu of the concealed carry endorsement issued by the director of revenue from October 11, 2003, until the concealed carry endorsement is issued by the director of revenue on or after July 1, 2004, unless such certificate of qualification has been suspended or revoked for cause.

            8. The sheriff shall keep a record of all applications for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement and his or her action thereon. The sheriff shall report the issuance of a certificate of qualification to the Missouri uniform law enforcement system. All information on any such certificate that is protected information on any driver's or nondriver's license shall have the same personal protection for purposes of sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043. An applicant's status as a holder of a certificate of qualification or a concealed carry endorsement shall not be public information and shall be considered personal protected information. Any person who violates the provisions of this subsection by disclosing protected information shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor.

            9. Information regarding any holder of a certificate of qualification or a concealed carry endorsement is a closed record.

            10. For processing an application for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043, the sheriff in each county shall charge a nonrefundable fee not to exceed one hundred dollars which shall be paid to the treasury of the county to the credit of the sheriff's revolving fund.

            11. For processing a renewal for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043, the sheriff in each county shall charge a nonrefundable fee not to exceed fifty dollars which shall be paid to the treasury of the county to the credit of the sheriff's revolving fund.

            12. For the purposes of sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043, the term "sheriff" shall include the sheriff of any county or city not within a county or his or her designee and in counties of the first classification the sheriff may designate the chief of police of any city, town, or municipality within such county.

            [571.104.] 319.1028. 1. (1) A concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043 shall be suspended or revoked if the concealed carry endorsement holder becomes ineligible for such concealed carry endorsement under the criteria established in subdivisions (2), (3), (4), (5), and (7) of subsection 2 of section [571.101] 319.1025 or upon the issuance of a valid full order of protection.

            (2) When a valid full order of protection, or any arrest warrant, discharge, or commitment for the reasons listed in subdivision (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection 2 of section [571.101] 319.1025, is issued against a person holding a concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043 upon notification of said order, warrant, discharge or commitment or upon an order of a court of competent jurisdiction in a criminal proceeding, a commitment proceeding or a full order of protection proceeding ruling that a person holding a concealed carry endorsement presents a risk of harm to themselves or others, then upon notification of such order, the holder of the concealed carry endorsement shall surrender the driver's license or nondriver's license containing the concealed carry endorsement to the court, to the officer, or other official serving the order, warrant, discharge, or commitment.

            (3) The official to whom the driver's license or nondriver's license containing the concealed carry endorsement is surrendered shall issue a receipt to the licensee for the license upon a form, approved by the director of revenue, that serves as a driver's license or a nondriver's license and clearly states the concealed carry endorsement has been suspended. The official shall then transmit the driver's license or a nondriver's license containing the concealed carry endorsement to the circuit court of the county issuing the order, warrant, discharge, or commitment. The concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043 shall be suspended until the order is terminated or until the arrest results in a dismissal of all charges. Upon dismissal, the court holding the driver's license or nondriver's license containing the concealed carry endorsement shall return it to the individual.

            (4) Any conviction, discharge, or commitment specified in sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043 shall result in a revocation. Upon conviction, the court shall forward a notice of conviction or action and the driver's license or nondriver's license with the concealed carry endorsement to the department of revenue. The department of revenue shall notify the sheriff of the county which issued the certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement and shall report the change in status of the concealed carry endorsement to the Missouri uniform law enforcement system. The director of revenue shall immediately remove the endorsement issued pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043 from the individual's driving record within three days of the receipt of the notice from the court. The director of revenue shall notify the licensee that he or she must apply for a new license pursuant to chapter 302 which does not contain such endorsement. This requirement does not affect the driving privileges of the licensee. The notice issued by the department of revenue shall be mailed to the last known address shown on the individual's driving record. The notice is deemed received three days after mailing.

            2. A concealed carry endorsement shall be renewed for a qualified applicant upon receipt of the properly completed renewal application and the required renewal fee by the sheriff of the county of the applicant's residence. The renewal application shall contain the same required information as set forth in subsection 3 of section [571.101] 319.1025, except that in lieu of the fingerprint requirement of subsection 5 of section [571.101] 319.1025 and the firearms safety training, the applicant need only display his or her current driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement. Upon successful completion of all renewal requirements, the sheriff shall issue a certificate of qualification which contains the date such certificate was renewed.

            3. A person who has been issued a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement who fails to file a renewal application on or before its expiration date must pay an additional late fee of ten dollars per month for each month it is expired for up to six months. After six months, the sheriff who issued the expired certificate shall notify the director of revenue that such certificate is expired. The director of revenue shall immediately cancel the concealed carry endorsement and remove such endorsement from the individual's driving record and notify the individual of such cancellation. The notice of cancellation of the endorsement shall be conducted in the same manner as described in subsection 1 of this section. Any person who has been issued a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043 who fails to renew his or her application within the six-month period must reapply for a new certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement and pay the fee for a new application. The director of revenue shall not issue an endorsement on a renewed driver's license or renewed nondriver's license unless the applicant for such license provides evidence that he or she has renewed the certification of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement in the manner provided for such renewal pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043. If an applicant for renewal of a driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement does not want to maintain the concealed carry endorsement, the applicant shall inform the director at the time of license renewal of his or her desire to remove the endorsement. When a driver's or nondriver's license applicant informs the director of his or her desire to remove the concealed carry endorsement, the director shall renew the driver's license or nondriver's license without the endorsement appearing on the license if the applicant is otherwise qualified for such renewal.

            4. Any person issued a concealed carry endorsement pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043 shall notify the department of revenue and the sheriffs of both the old and new jurisdictions of the endorsement holder's change of residence within thirty days after the changing of a permanent residence. The endorsement holder shall furnish proof to the department of revenue and the sheriff in the new jurisdiction that the endorsement holder has changed his or her residence. The sheriff of the new jurisdiction may charge a processing fee of not more than ten dollars for any costs associated with notification of a change in residence. The change of residence shall be made by the department of revenue onto the individual's driving record and the new address shall be accessible by the Missouri uniform law enforcement system within three days of receipt of the information.

            5. Any person issued a driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043 shall notify the sheriff or his or her designee of the endorsement holder's county or city of residence within seven days after actual knowledge of the loss or destruction of his or her driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement. The endorsement holder shall furnish a statement to the sheriff that the driver's license or nondriver's license containing the concealed carry endorsement has been lost or destroyed. After notification of the loss or destruction of a driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement, the sheriff shall reissue a new certificate of qualification within three working days of being notified by the concealed carry endorsement holder of its loss or destruction. The reissued certificate of qualification shall contain the same personal information, including expiration date, as the original certificate of qualification. The applicant shall then take the certificate to the department of revenue, and the department of revenue shall proceed on the certificate in the same manner as provided in subsection 7 section [571.101] 319.1025. Upon application for a license pursuant to chapter 302, the director of revenue shall issue a driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement if the applicant is otherwise eligible to receive such license.

            6. If a person issued a concealed carry endorsement changes his or her name, the person to whom the endorsement was issued shall obtain a corrected certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement with a change of name from the sheriff who issued such certificate upon the sheriff's verification of the name change. The sheriff may charge a processing fee of not more than ten dollars for any costs associated with obtaining a corrected certificate of qualification. The endorsement holder shall furnish proof of the name change to the department of revenue and the sheriff within thirty days of changing his or her name and display his or her current driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement. The endorsement holder shall apply for a new driver's license or nondriver's license containing his or her new name. Such application for a driver's license or nondriver's license shall be made pursuant to chapter 302. The director of revenue shall issue a driver's license or nondriver's license with concealed carry endorsement with the endorsement holder's new name if the applicant is otherwise eligible for such license. The director of revenue shall take custody of the old driver's license or nondriver's license. The name change shall be made by the department of revenue onto the individual's driving record and the new name shall be accessible by the Missouri uniform law enforcement system within three days of receipt of the information.

            7. A concealed carry endorsement shall be automatically invalid after thirty days if the endorsement holder has changed his or her name or changed his or her residence and not notified the department of revenue and sheriff of a change of name or residence as required in subsections 4 and 6 of this section.

            [571.107.] 319.1031. 1. A concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043 or a concealed carry endorsement or permit issued by another state or political subdivision of another state shall authorize the person in whose name the permit or endorsement is issued to carry concealed firearms on or about his or her person or vehicle throughout the state. No driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043 or a concealed carry endorsement or permit issued by another state or political subdivision of another state shall authorize any person to carry concealed firearms into:

            (1) Any police, sheriff, or highway patrol office or station without the consent of the chief law enforcement officer in charge of that office or station. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of the office or station shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (2) Within twenty-five feet of any polling place on any election day. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of the polling place shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (3) The facility of any adult or juvenile detention or correctional institution, prison or jail. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of any adult, juvenile detention, or correctional institution, prison or jail shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (4) Any courthouse solely occupied by the circuit, appellate or supreme court, or any courtrooms, administrative offices, libraries or other rooms of any such court whether or not such court solely occupies the building in question. This subdivision shall also include, but not be limited to, any juvenile, family, drug, or other court offices, any room or office wherein any of the courts or offices listed in this subdivision are temporarily conducting any business within the jurisdiction of such courts or offices, and such other locations in such manner as may be specified by supreme court rule pursuant to subdivision (6) of this subsection. Nothing in this subdivision shall preclude those persons listed in subdivision (1) of subsection [2 of section 571.030] 1 of section 571.041 while within their jurisdiction and on duty, those persons listed in subdivisions (2), (4), and [(10)] (9) of subsection [2 of section 571.030] 1 of section 571.041, or such other persons who serve in a law enforcement capacity for a court as may be specified by supreme court rule pursuant to subdivision (6) of this subsection from carrying a concealed firearm within any of the areas described in this subdivision. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of any of the areas listed in this subdivision shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (5) Any meeting of the governing body of a unit of local government; or any meeting of the general assembly or a committee of the general assembly, except that nothing in this subdivision shall preclude a member of the body holding a valid concealed carry endorsement from carrying a concealed firearm at a meeting of the body which he or she is a member. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises. Nothing in this subdivision shall preclude a member of the general assembly, a full-time employee of the general assembly employed under section 17, article III, Constitution of Missouri, legislative employees of the general assembly as determined under section 21.155, or statewide elected officials and their employees, holding a valid concealed carry endorsement, from carrying a concealed firearm in the state capitol building or at a meeting whether of the full body of a house of the general assembly or a committee thereof, that is held in the state capitol building;

            (6) The general assembly, supreme court, county or municipality may by rule, administrative regulation, or ordinance prohibit or limit the carrying of concealed firearms by endorsement holders in that portion of a building owned, leased or controlled by that unit of government. Any portion of a building in which the carrying of concealed firearms is prohibited or limited shall be clearly identified by signs posted at the entrance to the restricted area. The statute, rule or ordinance shall exempt any building used for public housing by private persons, highways or rest areas, firing ranges, and private dwellings owned, leased, or controlled by that unit of government from any restriction on the carrying or possession of a firearm. The statute, rule or ordinance shall not specify any criminal penalty for its violation but may specify that persons violating the statute, rule or ordinance may be denied entrance to the building, ordered to leave the building and if employees of the unit of government, be subjected to disciplinary measures for violation of the provisions of the statute, rule or ordinance. The provisions of this subdivision shall not apply to any other unit of government;

            (7) Any establishment licensed to dispense intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises, which portion is primarily devoted to that purpose, without the consent of the owner or manager. The provisions of this subdivision shall not apply to the licensee of said establishment. The provisions of this subdivision shall not apply to any bona fide restaurant open to the general public having dining facilities for not less than fifty persons and that receives at least fifty-one percent of its gross annual income from the dining facilities by the sale of food. This subdivision does not prohibit the possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of the establishment and shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises. Nothing in this subdivision authorizes any individual who has been issued a concealed carry endorsement to possess any firearm while intoxicated;

            (8) Any area of an airport to which access is controlled by the inspection of persons and property. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of the airport shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (9) Any place where the carrying of a firearm is prohibited by federal law;

            (10) Any higher education institution or elementary or secondary school facility without the consent of the governing body of the higher education institution or a school official or the district school board. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of any higher education institution or elementary or secondary school facility shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (11) Any portion of a building used as a child care facility without the consent of the manager. Nothing in this subdivision shall prevent the operator of a child care facility in a family home from owning or possessing a firearm or a driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement;

            (12) Any riverboat gambling operation accessible by the public without the consent of the owner or manager pursuant to rules promulgated by the gaming commission. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of a riverboat gambling operation shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (13) Any gated area of an amusement park. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of the amusement park shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (14) Any church or other place of religious worship without the consent of the minister or person or persons representing the religious organization that exercises control over the place of religious worship. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (15) Any private property whose owner has posted the premises as being off-limits to concealed firearms by means of one or more signs displayed in a conspicuous place of a minimum size of eleven inches by fourteen inches with the writing thereon in letters of not less than one inch. The owner, business or commercial lessee, manager of a private business enterprise, or any other organization, entity, or person may prohibit persons holding a concealed carry endorsement from carrying concealed firearms on the premises and may prohibit employees, not authorized by the employer, holding a concealed carry endorsement from carrying concealed firearms on the property of the employer. If the building or the premises are open to the public, the employer of the business enterprise shall post signs on or about the premises if carrying a concealed firearm is prohibited. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises. An employer may prohibit employees or other persons holding a concealed carry endorsement from carrying a concealed firearm in vehicles owned by the employer;

            (16) Any sports arena or stadium with a seating capacity of five thousand or more. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (17) Any hospital accessible by the public. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of a hospital shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises.

            2. Carrying of a concealed firearm in a location specified in subdivisions (1) to (17) of subsection 1 of this section by any individual who holds a concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043 shall not be a criminal act but may subject the person to denial to the premises or removal from the premises. If such person refuses to leave the premises and a peace officer is summoned, such person may be issued a citation for an amount not to exceed one hundred dollars for the first offense. If a second citation for a similar violation occurs within a six-month period, such person shall be fined an amount not to exceed two hundred dollars and his or her endorsement to carry concealed firearms shall be suspended for a period of one year. If a third citation for a similar violation is issued within one year of the first citation, such person shall be fined an amount not to exceed five hundred dollars and shall have his or her concealed carry endorsement revoked and such person shall not be eligible for a concealed carry endorsement for a period of three years. Upon conviction of charges arising from a citation issued pursuant to this subsection, the court shall notify the sheriff of the county which issued the certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement and the department of revenue. The sheriff shall suspend or revoke the certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement and the department of revenue shall issue a notice of such suspension or revocation of the concealed carry endorsement and take action to remove the concealed carry endorsement from the individual's driving record. The director of revenue shall notify the licensee that he or she must apply for a new license pursuant to chapter 302 which does not contain such endorsement. A concealed carry endorsement suspension pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043 shall be reinstated at the time of the renewal of his or her driver's license. The notice issued by the department of revenue shall be mailed to the last known address shown on the individual's driving record. The notice is deemed received three days after mailing.

            [571.111.] 319.1034. 1. An applicant for a concealed carry endorsement shall demonstrate knowledge of firearms safety training. This requirement shall be fully satisfied if the applicant for a concealed carry endorsement:

            (1) Submits a photocopy of a certificate of firearms safety training course completion, as defined in subsection 2 of this section, signed by a qualified firearms safety instructor as defined in subsection 5 of this section; or

            (2) Submits a photocopy of a certificate that shows the applicant completed a firearms safety course given by or under the supervision of any state, county, municipal, or federal law enforcement agency; or

            (3) Is a qualified firearms safety instructor as defined in subsection 5 of this section; or

            (4) Submits proof that the applicant currently holds any type of valid peace officer license issued under the requirements of chapter 590; or

            (5) Submits proof that the applicant is currently allowed to carry firearms in accordance with the certification requirements of section 217.710; or

            (6) Submits proof that the applicant is currently certified as any class of corrections officer by the Missouri department of corrections and has passed at least one eight-hour firearms training course, approved by the director of the Missouri department of corrections under the authority granted to him or her by section 217.105, that includes instruction on the justifiable use of force as prescribed in chapter 563; or

            (7) Submits a photocopy of a certificate of firearms safety training course completion that was issued on August 27, 2011, or earlier so long as the certificate met the requirements of subsection 2 of this section that were in effect on the date it was issued.

            2. A certificate of firearms safety training course completion may be issued to any applicant by any qualified firearms safety instructor. On the certificate of course completion the qualified firearms safety instructor shall affirm that the individual receiving instruction has taken and passed a firearms safety course of at least eight hours in length taught by the instructor that included:

            (1) Handgun safety in the classroom, at home, on the firing range and while carrying the firearm;

            (2) A physical demonstration performed by the applicant that demonstrated his or her ability to safely load and unload a revolver and a semiautomatic pistol and demonstrated his or her marksmanship with both;

            (3) The basic principles of marksmanship;

            (4) Care and cleaning of concealable firearms;

            (5) Safe storage of firearms at home;

            (6) The requirements of this state for obtaining a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement from the sheriff of the individual's county of residence and a concealed carry endorsement issued by the department of revenue;

            (7) The laws relating to firearms as prescribed in this chapter;

            (8) The laws relating to the justifiable use of force as prescribed in chapter 563;

            (9) A live firing exercise of sufficient duration for each applicant to fire both a revolver and a semiautomatic pistol, from a standing position or its equivalent, a minimum of fifty rounds from each handgun at a distance of seven yards from a B-27 silhouette target or an equivalent target;

            (10) A live fire test administered to the applicant while the instructor was present of twenty rounds from each handgun from a standing position or its equivalent at a distance from a B-27 silhouette target, or an equivalent target, of seven yards.

            3. A qualified firearms safety instructor shall not give a grade of passing to an applicant for a concealed carry endorsement who:

            (1) Does not follow the orders of the qualified firearms instructor or cognizant range officer; or

            (2) Handles a firearm in a manner that, in the judgment of the qualified firearm safety instructor, poses a danger to the applicant or to others; or

            (3) During the live fire testing portion of the course fails to hit the silhouette portion of the targets with at least fifteen rounds, with both handguns.

            4. Qualified firearms safety instructors who provide firearms safety instruction to any person who applies for a concealed carry endorsement shall:

            (1) Make the applicant's course records available upon request to the sheriff of the county in which the applicant resides;

            (2) Maintain all course records on students for a period of no less than four years from course completion date; and

            (3) Not have more than forty students in the classroom portion of the course or more than five students per range officer engaged in range firing.

            5. A firearms safety instructor shall be considered to be a qualified firearms safety instructor by any sheriff issuing a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043 if the instructor:

            (1) Is a valid firearms safety instructor certified by the National Rifle Association holding a rating as a personal protection instructor or pistol marksmanship instructor; or

            (2) Submits a photocopy of a certificate from a firearms safety instructor's course offered by a local, state, or federal governmental agency; or

            (3) Submits a photocopy of a certificate from a firearms safety instructor course approved by the department of public safety; or

            (4) Has successfully completed a firearms safety instructor course given by or under the supervision of any state, county, municipal, or federal law enforcement agency; or

            (5) Is a certified police officer firearms safety instructor.

            6. Any firearms safety instructor who knowingly provides any sheriff with any false information concerning an applicant's performance on any portion of the required training and qualification shall be guilty of a class C misdemeanor.

            [571.114.] 319.1037. 1. In any case when the sheriff refuses to issue a certificate of qualification or to act on an application for such certificate, the denied applicant shall have the right to appeal the denial within thirty days of receiving written notice of the denial. Such appeals shall be heard in small claims court as defined in section 482.300, and the provisions of sections 482.300, 482.310 and 482.335 shall apply to such appeals.

            2. A denial of or refusal to act on an application for a certificate of qualification may be appealed by filing with the clerk of the small claims court a copy of the sheriff's written refusal and a form substantially similar to the appeal form provided in this section. Appeal forms shall be provided by the clerk of the small claims court free of charge to any person:

SMALL CLAIMS COURT

 In the Circuit Court of ......................................, Missouri ........................................................ ......., Denied Applicant

            )

            )

 vs. ) Case Number ..................

            )

            ) .................................. ............., Sheriff

Return Date ............................

APPEAL OF A DENIAL

OF CERTIFICATE OF

QUALIFICATION FOR A

CONCEALED CARRY ENDORSEMENT

The denied applicant states that his or her properly completed application for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement was denied by the sheriff of .............. County, Missouri, without just cause. The denied applicant affirms that all of the statements in the application are true. ........................................., Denied Applicant

            3. The notice of appeal in a denial of a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement appeal shall be made to the sheriff in a manner and form determined by the small claims court judge.

            4. If at the hearing the person shows he or she is entitled to the requested certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement, the court shall issue an appropriate order to cause the issuance of the certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement. Costs shall not be assessed against the sheriff unless the action of the sheriff is determined by the judge to be arbitrary and capricious.

            5. Any person aggrieved by any final judgment rendered by a small claims court in a denial of a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement appeal may have a right to trial de novo as provided in sections 512.180 to 512.320.

            [571.117.] 319.1040. 1. Any person who has knowledge that another person, who was issued a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043, never was or no longer is eligible for such endorsement under the criteria established in sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043 may file a petition with the clerk of the small claims court to revoke that person's certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement and such person's concealed carry endorsement. The petition shall be in a form substantially similar to the petition for revocation of concealed carry endorsement provided in this section. Appeal forms shall be provided by the clerk of the small claims court free of charge to any person:

SMALL CLAIMS COURT

In the Circuit Court of ............., Missouri ........................., PLAINTIFF

                        )

                        )

            vs. ) Case Number ....................

                        )

                        )

.........................., DEFENDANT,

Carry Endorsement Holder

.........................., DEFENDANT,

Sheriff of Issuance

PETITION FOR REVOCATION

OF CERTIFICATE OF QUALIFICATION

OR CONCEALED CARRY ENDORSEMENT

            Plaintiff states to the court that the defendant, .............., has a certificate of qualification or a concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043, RSMo, and that the defendant's certificate of qualification or concealed carry endorsement should now be revoked because the defendant either never was or no longer is eligible for such a certificate or endorsement pursuant to the provisions of sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043, RSMo, specifically plaintiff states that defendant, .............., never was or no longer is eligible for such certificate or endorsement for one or more of the following reasons:

(CHECK BELOW EACH REASON

THAT APPLIES TO THIS DEFENDANT)

            □ Defendant is not at least twenty-one years [of age] old or at least eighteen years [of age] old and a member of the United States Armed Forces or honorably discharged from the United States Armed Forces.

            □ Defendant is not a citizen of the United States.

            □ Defendant had not resided in this state prior to issuance of the permit and does not qualify as a military member or spouse of a military member stationed in Missouri.

            □ Defendant has [pled guilty to or been convicted of a crime] been found guilty of an offense punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year under the laws of any state or of the United States other than a crime classified as a misdemeanor under the laws of any state and punishable by a term of imprisonment of one year or less that does not involve an explosive weapon, firearm, firearm silencer, or gas gun.

            □ Defendant has been [convicted of, pled guilty to or entered a plea of nolo contendere to] found guilty of one or more misdemeanor offenses involving crimes of violence within a five-year period immediately preceding application for a certificate of qualification or concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043, RSMo, or if the applicant has been convicted of two or more misdemeanor offenses involving driving while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or drugs or the possession or abuse of a controlled substance within a five-year period immediately preceding application for a certificate of qualification or a concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043, RSMo.

            □ Defendant is a fugitive from justice or currently charged in an information or indictment with the commission of a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year under the laws of any state of the United States other than a crime classified as a misdemeanor under the laws of any state and punishable by a term of imprisonment of one year or less that does not involve an explosive weapon, firearm, firearm silencer, or gas gun.

            □ Defendant has been discharged under dishonorable conditions from the United States armed forces.

            □ Defendant is reasonably believed by the sheriff to be a danger to self or others based on previous, documented pattern.

            □ Defendant is adjudged mentally incompetent at the time of application or for five years prior to application, or has been committed to a mental health facility, as defined in section 632.005, RSMo, or a similar institution located in another state, except that a person whose release or discharge from a facility in this state pursuant to chapter 632, RSMo, or a similar discharge from a facility in another state, occurred more than five years ago without subsequent recommitment may apply.

            □ Defendant failed to submit a completed application for a certificate of qualification or concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043, RSMo.

            □ Defendant failed to submit to or failed to clear the required background check.

            □ Defendant failed to submit an affidavit attesting that the applicant complies with the concealed carry safety training requirement pursuant to subsection 1 of section [571.111] 1034, RSMo.

 

The plaintiff subject to penalty for perjury states that the information contained in this petition is true and correct to the best of the plaintiff's knowledge, is reasonably based upon the petitioner's personal knowledge and is not primarily intended to harass the defendant/respondent named herein. ..........................., PLAINTIFF

            2. If at the hearing the plaintiff shows that the defendant was not eligible for the certificate of qualification or the concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043, at the time of issuance or renewal or is no longer eligible for a certificate of qualification or the concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to the provisions of sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043, the court shall issue an appropriate order to cause the revocation of the certificate of qualification or concealed carry endorsement. Costs shall not be assessed against the sheriff.

            3. The finder of fact, in any action brought against an endorsement holder pursuant to subsection 1 of this section, shall make findings of fact and the court shall make conclusions of law addressing the issues at dispute. If it is determined that the plaintiff in such an action acted without justification or with malice or primarily with an intent to harass the endorsement holder or that there was no reasonable basis to bring the action, the court shall order the plaintiff to pay the defendant/respondent all reasonable costs incurred in defending the action including, but not limited to, attorney's fees, deposition costs, and lost wages. Once the court determines that the plaintiff is liable to the defendant/respondent for costs and fees, the extent and type of fees and costs to be awarded should be liberally calculated in defendant/respondent's favor. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, reasonable attorney's fees shall be presumed to be at least one hundred fifty dollars per hour.

            4. Any person aggrieved by any final judgment rendered by a small claims court in a petition for revocation of a certificate of qualification or concealed carry endorsement may have a right to trial de novo as provided in sections 512.180 to 512.320.

            5. The office of the county sheriff or any employee or agent of the county sheriff shall not be liable for damages in any civil action arising from alleged wrongful or improper granting, renewing, or failure to revoke a certificate of qualification or a concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043, so long as the sheriff acted in good faith.

            [571.121.] 319.1043. 1. Any person issued a concealed carry endorsement pursuant to sections [571.101 to 571.121] 319.1025 to 319.1043 shall carry the concealed carry endorsement at all times the person is carrying a concealed firearm and shall display the concealed carry endorsement upon the request of any peace officer. Failure to comply with this subsection shall not be a criminal offense but the concealed carry endorsement holder may be issued a citation for an amount not to exceed thirty-five dollars.

            2. Notwithstanding any other provisions of law, the director of revenue, by carrying out his or her requirement to issue a driver's or nondriver's license reflecting that a concealed carry permit has been granted, shall bear no liability and shall be immune from any claims for damages resulting from any determination made regarding the qualification of any person for such permit or for any actions stemming from the conduct of any person issued such a permit. By issuing the permit on the driver's or nondriver's license, the director of revenue is merely acting as a scrivener for any determination made by the sheriff that the person is qualified for the permit.

            320.089. 1. No person or other legal entity shall label personal protective equipment as meeting the standards set forth in subsection 2 of section 320.088 unless such equipment does in fact meet such standards.

            2. Any person who violates the provisions of subsection 1 of this section is guilty of a class [D] E felony.

            320.161. Any person violating any provision of sections 320.106 to 320.161 is guilty of a class A misdemeanor, except that a person violating section 320.136 is guilty of a class [C] D felony.

            324.1142. Any person who knowingly falsifies the fingerprints or photographs or other information required to be submitted under sections 324.1100 to 324.1148 is guilty of a class [D] E felony; and any person who violates any of the other provisions of sections 324.1100 to 324.1148 is guilty of a class A misdemeanor.

            324.1148. Any person who violates sections 324.1100 to 324.1148 is guilty of a class A misdemeanor. Any second or subsequent violation of sections 324.1100 to 324.1148 is a class [D] E felony.

            334.250. 1. Any person who violates section 334.010 shall, upon conviction, be adjudged guilty of a class [C] D felony for each and every offense; and treating each patient is considered a separate offense.

            2. Any person filing or attempting to file as his own a license of another, or forged affidavit of identification, shall be guilty of a class [C] D felony and upon conviction thereof shall be subjected to such fine and imprisonment as is provided by the statutes of this state for the crime of forgery.

            335.096. Any person who violates any of the provisions of chapter 335 is guilty of a class [D] E felony and, upon conviction, shall be punished as provided by law.

            338.195. Any person, who is not licensed under this chapter, who violates any provision of sections 338.010 to 338.315 shall, upon conviction, be adjudged guilty of a class [C] D felony.

            338.315. 1. Except as otherwise provided by the board by rule, it shall be unlawful for any pharmacist, pharmacy owner or person employed by a pharmacy to knowingly purchase or receive any legend drugs under 21 U.S.C. Section 353 from other than a licensed or registered drug distributor or licensed pharmacy. Any person who violates the provisions of this section shall, upon conviction, be adjudged guilty of a class A misdemeanor. Any subsequent conviction shall constitute a class [D] E felony.

            2. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, the sale, purchase, or trade of a prescription drug by a pharmacy to other pharmacies is permissible if the total dollar volume of such sales, purchases, or trades are in compliance with the rules of the board and do not exceed five percent of the pharmacy's total annual prescription drug sales.

            3. Pharmacies shall establish and maintain inventories and records of all transactions regarding the receipt and distribution or other disposition of legend drugs. Such records shall be maintained for two years and be readily available upon request by the board or its representatives.

            4. The board shall promulgate rules to implement the provisions of this section. Any rule or portion of a rule, as that term is defined in section 536.010, that is created under the authority delegated in this section shall become effective only if it complies with and is subject to all of the provisions of chapter 536 and, if applicable, section 536.028. This section and chapter 536 are nonseverable and if any of the powers vested with the general assembly pursuant to chapter 536 to review, to delay the effective date, or to disapprove and annul a rule are subsequently held unconstitutional, then the grant of rulemaking authority and any rule proposed or adopted after August 28, 2012, shall be invalid and void.

            338.370. Every person who violates any provision of sections 338.333, 338.337, and 338.340 shall, upon conviction thereof, be adjudged guilty of a class [C] D felony.

            339.100. 1. The commission may, upon its own motion, and shall upon receipt of a written complaint filed by any person, investigate any real estate-related activity of a licensee licensed under sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860 or an individual or entity acting as or representing themselves as a real estate licensee. In conducting such investigation, if the questioned activity or written complaint involves an affiliated licensee, the commission may forward a copy of the information received to the affiliated licensee's designated broker. The commission shall have the power to hold an investigatory hearing to determine whether there is a probability of a violation of sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860. The commission shall have the power to issue a subpoena to compel the production of records and papers bearing on the complaint. The commission shall have the power to issue a subpoena and to compel any person in this state to come before the commission to offer testimony or any material specified in the subpoena. Subpoenas and subpoenas duces tecum issued pursuant to this section shall be served in the same manner as subpoenas in a criminal case. The fees and mileage of witnesses shall be the same as that allowed in the circuit court in civil cases.

            2. The commission may cause a complaint to be filed with the administrative hearing commission as provided by the provisions of chapter 621 against any person or entity licensed under this chapter or any licensee who has failed to renew or has surrendered his or her individual or entity license for any one or any combination of the following acts:

            (1) Failure to maintain and deposit in a special account, separate and apart from his or her personal or other business accounts, all moneys belonging to others entrusted to him or her while acting as a real estate broker or as the temporary custodian of the funds of others, until the transaction involved is consummated or terminated, unless all parties having an interest in the funds have agreed otherwise in writing;

            (2) Making substantial misrepresentations or false promises or suppression, concealment or omission of material facts in the conduct of his or her business or pursuing a flagrant and continued course of misrepresentation through agents, salespersons, advertising or otherwise in any transaction;

            (3) Failing within a reasonable time to account for or to remit any moneys, valuable documents or other property, coming into his or her possession, which belongs to others;

            (4) Representing to any lender, guaranteeing agency, or any other interested party, either verbally or through the preparation of false documents, an amount in excess of the true and actual sale price of the real estate or terms differing from those actually agreed upon;

            (5) Failure to timely deliver a duplicate original of any and all instruments to any party or parties executing the same where the instruments have been prepared by the licensee or under his or her supervision or are within his or her control, including, but not limited to, the instruments relating to the employment of the licensee or to any matter pertaining to the consummation of a lease, listing agreement or the purchase, sale, exchange or lease of property, or any type of real estate transaction in which he or she may participate as a licensee;

            (6) Acting for more than one party in a transaction without the knowledge of all parties for whom he or she acts, or accepting a commission or valuable consideration for services from more than one party in a real estate transaction without the knowledge of all parties to the transaction;

            (7) Paying a commission or valuable consideration to any person for acts or services performed in violation of sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860;

            (8) Guaranteeing or having authorized or permitted any licensee to guarantee future profits which may result from the resale of real property;

            (9) Having been finally adjudicated and been found guilty of the violation of any state or federal statute which governs the sale or rental of real property or the conduct of the real estate business as defined in subsection 1 of section 339.010;

            (10) Obtaining a certificate or registration of authority, permit or license for himself or herself or anyone else by false or fraudulent representation, fraud or deceit;

            (11) Representing a real estate broker other than the broker with whom associated without the express written consent of the broker with whom associated;

            (12) Accepting a commission or valuable consideration for the performance of any of the acts referred to in section 339.010 from any person except the broker with whom associated at the time the commission or valuable consideration was earned;

            (13) Using prizes, money, gifts or other valuable consideration as inducement to secure customers or clients to purchase, lease, sell or list property when the awarding of such prizes, money, gifts or other valuable consideration is conditioned upon the purchase, lease, sale or listing; or soliciting, selling or offering for sale real property by offering free lots, or conducting lotteries or contests, or offering prizes for the purpose of influencing a purchaser or prospective purchaser of real property;

            (14) Placing a sign on or advertising any property offering it for sale or rent without the written consent of the owner or his or her duly authorized agent;

            (15) Violation of, or attempting to violate, directly or indirectly, or assisting or enabling any person to violate, any provision of sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860, or of any lawful rule adopted pursuant to sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860;

            (16) Committing any act which would otherwise be grounds for the commission to refuse to issue a license under section 339.040;

            (17) Failure to timely inform seller of all written offers unless otherwise instructed in writing by the seller;

            (18) Been finally adjudicated and found guilty, or entered a plea of guilty or nolo contendere, in a criminal prosecution under the laws of this state or any other state or of the United States, for any offense reasonably related to the qualifications, functions or duties of any profession licensed or regulated under this chapter, for any offense an essential element of which is fraud, dishonesty or an act of violence, or for any offense involving moral turpitude, whether or not sentence is imposed;

            (19) Any other conduct which constitutes untrustworthy, improper or fraudulent business dealings, demonstrates bad faith or incompetence, misconduct, or gross negligence;

            (20) Disciplinary action against the holder of a license or other right to practice any profession regulated under sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860 granted by another state, territory, federal agency, or country upon grounds for which revocation, suspension, or probation is authorized in this state;

            (21) Been found by a court of competent jurisdiction of having used any controlled substance, as defined in chapter 195, to the extent that such use impairs a person's ability to perform the work of any profession licensed or regulated by sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860;

            (22) Been finally adjudged insane or incompetent by a court of competent jurisdiction;

            (23) Assisting or enabling any person to practice or offer to practice any profession licensed or regulated under sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860 who is not registered and currently eligible to practice under sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860;

            (24) Use of any advertisement or solicitation which is knowingly false, misleading or deceptive to the general public or persons to whom the advertisement or solicitation is primarily directed;

            (25) Making any material misstatement, misrepresentation, or omission with regard to any application for licensure or license renewal. As used in this section, "material" means important information about which the commission should be informed and which may influence a licensing decision;

            (26) Engaging in, committing, or assisting any person in engaging in or committing mortgage fraud, as defined in section 443.930.

            3. After the filing of such complaint, the proceedings will be conducted in accordance with the provisions of law relating to the administrative hearing commission. A finding of the administrative hearing commissioner that the licensee has performed or attempted to perform one or more of the foregoing acts shall be grounds for the suspension or revocation of his license by the commission, or the placing of the licensee on probation on such terms and conditions as the real estate commission shall deem appropriate, or the imposition of a civil penalty by the commission not to exceed two thousand five hundred dollars for each offense. Each day of a continued violation shall constitute a separate offense.

            4. The commission may prepare a digest of the decisions of the administrative hearing commission which concern complaints against licensed brokers or salespersons and cause such digests to be mailed to all licensees periodically. Such digests may also contain reports as to new or changed rules adopted by the commission and other information of significance to licensees.

            5. Notwithstanding other provisions of this section, a broker or salesperson's license shall be revoked, or in the case of an applicant, shall not be issued, if the licensee or applicant has pleaded guilty to, entered a plea of nolo contendere to, or been found guilty of any of the following offenses or offenses of a similar nature established under the laws of this, any other state, the United States, or any other country, notwithstanding whether sentence is imposed:

            (1) Any dangerous felony as defined under section 556.061 or murder in the first degree;

            (2) Any of the following sexual offenses: rape in the first degree, statutory rape in the first degree, statutory rape in the second degree, [sexual assault, forcible] rape in the second degree, sodomy in the first degree, statutory sodomy in the first degree, statutory sodomy in the second degree, child molestation in the first degree, child molestation in the second degree, [deviate sexual assault] sodomy in the second degree, sexual misconduct involving a child, [sexual misconduct in the first degree,] sexual abuse in the first or second degree, enticement of a child, or attempting to entice a child;

            (3) Any of the following offenses against the family and related offenses: incest, abandonment of a child in the first degree, abandonment of a child in the second degree, endangering the welfare of a child in the first degree, abuse of a child, using a child in a sexual performance, promoting sexual performance by a child, or trafficking in children;

            (4) Any of the following offenses involving child pornography and related offenses: promoting obscenity in the first degree, promoting obscenity in the second degree when the penalty is enhanced to a class D felony, promoting child pornography in the first degree, promoting child pornography in the second degree, possession of child pornography in the first degree, possession of child pornography in the second degree, furnishing child pornography to a minor, furnishing pornographic materials to minors, or coercing acceptance of obscene material; and

            (5) Mortgage fraud as defined in section 570.310.

            6. A person whose license was revoked under subsection 5 of this section may appeal such revocation to the administrative hearing commission. Notice of such appeal must be received by the administrative hearing commission within ninety days of mailing, by certified mail, the notice of revocation. Failure of a person whose license was revoked to notify the administrative hearing commission of his or her intent to appeal waives all rights to appeal the revocation. Upon notice of such person's intent to appeal, a hearing shall be held before the administrative hearing commission.

            [566.265.] 351.493. If a corporation or other business [pleads guilty to or] is found guilty of violating section 566.203, 566.206, 566.209, [566.212, 566.213,] 566.210, 566.211, or 566.215, in addition to the criminal penalties described in such sections and other remedies provided for by law, the court may:

            (1) Order its dissolution or reorganization;

            (2) Order the suspension or revocation of any license, permit, or prior approval granted to it by the state;

            (3) Order the surrender of its charter if it is organized under Missouri law or the revocation of its certificate to conduct business in Missouri if it is not organized under Missouri law.

            354.320. No officer, enrollment representative or employee of any corporation subject to the provisions of sections 354.010 to 354.380, formed under the laws of this state, or doing business herein, shall, directly or indirectly, use or employ, or permit others to use or employ, any of the money, funds or securities of such corporation for private profit or gain, except for reasonable compensation for services performed and reimbursement for expenses incurred, and any such use shall, upon conviction thereof, be a class [D] E felony.

            362.170. 1. As used in this section, the term "unimpaired capital" includes common and preferred stock, capital notes, the surplus fund, undivided profits and any reserves, not subject to known charges as shown on the next preceding published report of the bank or trust company to the director of finance or obtained by the director pursuant to subsection 3 of section 361.130. For purposes of lending limitations, goodwill may comprise no more than ten percent of unimpaired capital.

            2. No bank or trust company subject to the provisions of this chapter shall:

            (1) Directly or indirectly, lend to any individual, partnership, corporation, limited liability company or body politic, either by means of letters of credit, by acceptance of drafts, or by discount or purchase of notes, bills of exchange, or other obligations of the individual, partnership, corporation, limited liability company or body politic an amount or amounts in the aggregate which will exceed the greater of: (i) twenty-five percent of the unimpaired capital of the bank or trust company, provided such bank or trust company has a composite rating of 1 or 2 under the Capital, Assets, Management, Earnings, Liquidity and Sensitivity (CAMELS) rating system of the Federal Financial Institute Examination Counsel (FFIEC); (ii) fifteen percent of the unimpaired capital of the bank or trust company if located in a city having a population of one hundred thousand or over; twenty percent of the unimpaired capital of the bank or trust company if located in a city having a population of less than one hundred thousand and over seven thousand; and twenty-five percent of the unimpaired capital of the bank or trust company if located elsewhere in the state, with the following exceptions:

            (a) The restrictions in this subdivision shall not apply to:

            a. Bonds or other evidences of debt of the government of the United States or its territorial and insular possessions, or of the state of Missouri, or of any city, county, town, village, or political subdivision of this state;

            b. Bonds or other evidences of debt, the issuance of which is authorized under the laws of the United States, and as to which the government of the United States has guaranteed or contracted to provide funds to pay both principal and interest;

            c. Bonds or other evidences of debt of any state of the United States other than the state of Missouri, or of any county, city or school district of the foreign state, which county, city, or school district shall have a population of fifty thousand or more inhabitants, and which shall not have defaulted for more than one hundred twenty days in the payment of any of its general obligation bonds or other evidences of debt, either principal or interest, for a period of ten years prior to the time of purchase of the investment and provided that the bonds or other evidences of debt shall be a direct general obligation of the county, city, or school district;

            d. Loans to the extent that they are insured or covered by guaranties or by commitments or agreements to take over or purchase made by any department, bureau, board, commission, or establishment of the United States or of the state of Missouri, including any corporation, wholly owned, directly or indirectly, by the United States or of the state of Missouri, pursuant to the authority of any act of Congress or the Missouri general assembly heretofore or hereafter adopted or amended or pursuant to the authority of any executive order of the President of the United States or the governor of Missouri heretofore or hereafter made or amended under the authority of any act of Congress heretofore or hereafter adopted or amended, and the part of the loan not so agreed to be purchased or discounted is within the restrictive provisions of this section;

            e. Obligations to any bank or trust company in the form of notes of any person, copartnership, association, corporation or limited liability company, secured by not less than a like amount of direct obligations of the United States which will mature in not exceeding five years from the date the obligations to the bank are entered into;

            f. Loans to the extent they are secured by a segregated deposit account in the lending bank if the lending bank has obtained a perfected security interest in such account;

            g. Evidences of debt which are direct obligations of, or which are guaranteed by, the Government National Mortgage Association, the Federal National Mortgage Association, the Student Loan Marketing Association, the Federal Home Loan Banks, the Federal Farm Credit Bank or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation, or evidences of debt which are fully collateralized by direct obligations of, and which are issued by, the Government National Mortgage Association, the Federal National Mortgage Association, the Student Loan Marketing Association, a Federal Home Loan Bank, the Federal Farm Credit Bank or the Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation;

            (b) The total liabilities to the bank or trust company of any individual, partnership, corporation or limited liability company may equal but not exceed thirty-five percent of the unimpaired capital of the bank or trust company; provided, that all of the total liabilities in excess of the legal loan limit of the bank or trust company as defined in this subdivision are upon paper based upon the collateral security of warehouse receipts covering agricultural products or the manufactured or processed derivatives of agricultural products in public elevators and public warehouses subject to state supervision and regulation in this state or in any other state of the United States, under the following conditions: first, that the actual market value of the property held in store and covered by the receipt shall at all times exceed by at least fifteen percent the amount loaned upon it; and second, that the property covered by the receipts shall be insured to the full market value thereof against loss by fire and lightning, the insurance policies to be issued by corporations or individuals licensed to do business by the state in which the property is located, and when the insurance has been used to the limit that it can be secured, then in corporations or with individuals licensed to do an insurance business by the state or country of their incorporation or residence; and all policies covering property on which the loan is made shall have endorsed thereon, "loss, if any, payable to the holder of the warehouse receipts"; and provided further, that in arriving at the amount that may be loaned by any bank or trust company to any individual, partnership, corporation or limited liability company on elevator or warehouse receipts there shall be deducted from the thirty-five percent of its unimpaired capital the total of all other liabilities of the individual, partnership, corporation or limited liability company to the bank or trust company;

            (c) In computing the total liabilities of any individual to a bank or trust company there shall be included all liabilities to the bank or trust company of any partnership of which the individual is a member, and any loans made for the individual's benefit or for the benefit of the partnership; of any partnership to a bank or trust company there shall be included all liabilities of and all loans made for the benefit of the partnership; of any corporation to a bank or trust company there shall be included all loans made for the benefit of the corporation and of any limited liability company to a bank or trust company there shall be included all loans made for the benefit of the limited liability company;

            (d) The purchase or discount of drafts, or bills of exchange drawn in good faith against actually existing values, shall not be considered as money borrowed within the meaning of this section; and the purchase or discount of negotiable or nonnegotiable paper which carries the full recourse endorsements or guaranty or agreement to repurchase of the person, copartnership, association, corporation or limited liability company negotiating the same shall not be considered as money borrowed by the endorser or guarantor or the repurchaser within the meaning of this section, provided that the files of the bank or trust company acquiring the paper contain the written certification by an officer designated for this purpose by its board of directors that the responsibility of the makers has been evaluated and the acquiring bank or trust company is relying primarily upon the makers thereof for the payment of the paper;

            (e) For the purpose of this section, a loan guaranteed by an individual who does not receive the proceeds of the loan shall not be considered a loan to the guarantor;

            (f) Investments in mortgage-related securities, as described in the Secondary Mortgage Market Enhancement Act of 1984, P.L. 98-440, excluding those described in subparagraph g. of paragraph (a) of subdivision (1) of this subsection, shall be subject to the restrictions of this section, provided that a bank or trust company may invest up to two times its legal loan limit in any such securities that are rated in one of the two highest rating categories by at least one nationally recognized statistical rating organization;

         &