SECOND REGULAR SESSION

[PERFECTED]

HOUSE COMMITTEE SUBSTITUTE NO. 2 FOR

HOUSE BILL NOS. 1692, 1209, 1405, 1499, 1535 & 1811

95TH GENERAL ASSEMBLY

4506L.07P                                                                                                                                                 D. ADAM CRUMBLISS, Chief Clerk


 

AN ACT

To repeal sections 32.056, 58.370, 66.010, 105.711, 193.087, 193.125, 193.255, 210.145, 210.150, 210.152, 211.031, 288.034, 301.146, 339.010, 339.020, 339.030, 339.040, 339.080, 339.110, 339.160, 339.170, 339.710, 452.377, 452.340, 452.430, 454.425, 454.475, 454.515, 454.517, 454.548, 454.557, 454.1003, 455.501, 476.083, 525.233, 537.296, 537.528, 542.286, 563.011, 563.031, 571.030, 571.070, 571.101, 571.104, 571.104, and 571.107, RSMo, and to enact in lieu thereof fifty-one new sections relating to the justice system, with penalty provisions.




Be it enacted by the General Assembly of the state of Missouri, as follows:


            Section A. Sections 32.056, 58.370, 66.010, 105.711, 193.087, 193.125, 193.255, 210.145, 210.150, 210.152, 211.031, 288.034, 301.146, 339.010, 339.020, 339.030, 339.040, 339.080, 339.110, 339.160, 339.170, 339.710, 452.377, 452.340, 452.430, 454.425, 454.475, 454.515, 454.517, 454.548, 454.557, 454.1003, 455.501, 476.083, 525.233, 537.296, 537.528, 542.286, 563.011, 563.031, 571.030, 571.070, 571.101, 571.104, 571.104, and 571.107, RSMo, are repealed and fifty-one new sections enacted in lieu thereof, to be known as sections 32.056, 58.370, 66.010, 105.711, 193.087, 193.125, 193.128, 193.132, 193.255, 210.145, 210.150, 210.152, 211.031, 288.034, 301.146, 306.532, 339.010, 339.020, 339.030, 339.040, 339.080, 339.110, 339.160, 339.170, 339.710, 339.845, 441.645, 452.340, 452.377, 452.430, 454.425, 454.475, 454.515, 454.517, 454.548, 454.557, 454.1003, 455.007, 455.501, 476.083, 525.233, 537.296, 537.528, 542.286, 563.011, 563.031, 571.030, 571.070, 571.101, 571.104 and 571.107 to read as follows:

            32.056. The department of revenue shall not release the home address or any other information contained in the department's motor vehicle or driver registration records regarding any person, and the immediate family members of any such person, who is a county, state or federal parole officer or who is a federal pretrial officer or who is a peace officer pursuant to section [590.100, RSMo, or a member of the parole officer's, pretrial officer's or peace officer's immediate family] 590.010, or those persons vested by article V, section 1 of the Constitution of Missouri with the judicial power of the state and those persons vested by Article III of the Constitution of the United States with the judicial power of the United States, the members of the federal judiciary, based on a specific request for such information from any person. Any person [who is a county, state or federal parole officer or who is a federal pretrial officer or who is a peace officer pursuant to section 590.100, RSMo,] with a current status covered by this section may notify the department of such status and the department shall protect the confidentiality of the records on such a person and his or her immediate family as required by this section. This section shall not prohibit the department from releasing information on a motor registration list pursuant to section 32.055 or from releasing information on any officer who holds a class A, B or C commercial driver's license pursuant to the Motor Carrier Safety Improvement Act of 1999, as amended, 49 U.S.C. 31309.

            58.370. The coroner, upon an inquisition found before him of the death of any person by the felony of another, shall speedily inform [one or more associate circuit judges] the prosecuting attorney of the proper county[, or some judge or justice of some court of record, and it shall be the duty of such officer forthwith to issue his process for the apprehension and securing for trial of such person] of the result of the inquisition.

            66.010. 1. Any county framing and adopting a charter for its own government under the provisions of section 18, article VI of the constitution of this state, may prosecute and punish violations of its county ordinances in the circuit court of such counties in the manner and to the extent herein provided or in a county municipal court. In addition, the county may prosecute and punish municipal ordinance violations in the county municipal court pursuant to a contract with any municipality within the county. Any county municipal court established pursuant to the provisions of this section shall have jurisdiction over violations of that county's ordinances and the ordinances of municipalities with which the county has a contract to prosecute and punish violations of municipal ordinances of the city. Costs and procedures in any such county municipal court shall be governed by the provisions of law relating to municipal ordinance violations in municipal divisions of circuit courts.

            2. In any county which has elected to establish a county municipal court pursuant to this section, the judges for such court shall be appointed by the county executive of such county, subject to confirmation by the legislative body of such county in the same manner as confirmation for other county appointed officers. The number of judges appointed, and qualifications for their appointment, shall be established by ordinance of the county.

              3. The number of divisions of such county municipal court and its term shall be established by ordinance of the county.

            4. Except in any county with a charter form of government and with more than six hundred thousand but fewer than seven hundred thousand inhabitants, the ordinance of the county shall provide for regular sessions of court in the evening hours after 6:00 p.m. and at locations outside the county seat. In any county with a charter form of government and with more than six hundred thousand but fewer than seven hundred thousand inhabitants, the ordinance of the county may provide for regular sessions of court in the evening hours after 6:00 p.m. and at locations outside the county seat.

            5. Judges of the county municipal court shall be licensed to practice law in this state and shall be residents of the county in which they serve. Municipal court judges shall not accept or handle cases in their practice of law which are inconsistent with their duties as a municipal court judge and full-time municipal judges shall not be a judge or prosecutor for any other court.

            6. Whenever any judge of the county municipal court shall become temporarily ill or otherwise unavailable, any county municipal court judge may appoint an acting county municipal court judge to take his or her place on a temporary basis. The acting county municipal court judge appointed shall be a person who already serves as a municipal court judge within the same judicial circuit. The provisions of subsection 5 of this section shall not apply to acting county municipal court judges.

            7. In establishing the county municipal court, provisions shall be made for appropriate circumstances whereby defendants may enter not guilty pleas and obtain trial dates by telephone or written communication without personal appearance, or to plead guilty and deliver by mail or electronic transfer or other approved method the specified amount of the fine and costs as otherwise provided by law, within a specified period of time.

            [7.] 8. In a county municipal court established pursuant to this section, the county may provide by ordinance for court costs not to exceed the sum which may be provided by municipalities for municipal violations before municipal courts. The county municipal judge may assess costs against a defendant who pleads guilty or is found guilty except in those cases where the defendant is found by the judge to be indigent and unable to pay the costs. The costs authorized in this subsection are in addition to service costs, witness fees and jail costs that may otherwise be authorized to be assessed, but are in lieu of other court or judge costs or fees. Such costs shall be collected by the authorized clerk and deposited into the county treasury.

            [8.] 9. Provisions shall be made for recording of proceedings, except that if such proceedings are not recorded, then, in that event, a person aggrieved by a judgment of a traffic judge or commissioner shall have the right of a trial de novo. The procedures for perfecting the right of a trial de novo shall be the same as that provided under sections 512.180 to 512.320, RSMo, except that the provisions of subsection 2 of section 512.180, RSMo, shall not apply to such cases. In the event that such proceedings are recorded, all final decisions of the county municipal court shall be appealable on such record to the appellate court with appropriate jurisdiction.

            [9.] 10. Any person charged with the violation of a county ordinance in a county which has established a county municipal court under the provisions of this section shall, upon request, be entitled to a trial by jury before a county municipal court judge. Any jury trial shall be heard with a record being made.

            [10.] 11. In the event that a court is established pursuant to this section, the circuit judges of the judicial circuit with jurisdiction within that county may authorize the judges of the county municipal court to act as commissioners to hear in the first instance nonfelony violations of state law involving motor vehicles as provided by local rule.

            105.711. 1. There is hereby created a "State Legal Expense Fund" which shall consist of moneys appropriated to the fund by the general assembly and moneys otherwise credited to such fund pursuant to section 105.716.

            2. Moneys in the state legal expense fund shall be available for the payment of any claim or any amount required by any final judgment rendered by a court of competent jurisdiction against:

            (1) The state of Missouri, or any agency of the state, pursuant to section 536.050 or 536.087, RSMo, or section 537.600, RSMo;

            (2) Any officer or employee of the state of Missouri or any agency of the state, including, without limitation, elected officials, appointees, members of state boards or commissions, and members of the Missouri national guard upon conduct of such officer or employee arising out of and performed in connection with his or her official duties on behalf of the state, or any agency of the state, provided that moneys in this fund shall not be available for payment of claims made under chapter 287, RSMo;

            (3) (a) Any physician, psychiatrist, pharmacist, podiatrist, dentist, nurse, or other health care provider licensed to practice in Missouri under the provisions of chapter 330, 332, 334, 335, 336, 337 or 338, RSMo, who is employed by the state of Missouri or any agency of the state under formal contract to conduct disability reviews on behalf of the department of elementary and secondary education or provide services to patients or inmates of state correctional facilities on a part-time basis, and any physician, psychiatrist, pharmacist, podiatrist, dentist, nurse, or other health care provider licensed to practice in Missouri under the provisions of chapter 330, 332, 334, 335, 336, 337, or 338, RSMo, who is under formal contract to provide services to patients or inmates at a county jail on a part-time basis;

            (b) Any physician licensed to practice medicine in Missouri under the provisions of chapter 334, RSMo, and his professional corporation organized pursuant to chapter 356, RSMo, who is employed by or under contract with a city or county health department organized under chapter 192, RSMo, or chapter 205, RSMo, or a city health department operating under a city charter, or a combined city-county health department to provide services to patients for medical care caused by pregnancy, delivery, and child care, if such medical services are provided by the physician pursuant to the contract without compensation or the physician is paid from no other source than a governmental agency except for patient co-payments required by federal or state law or local ordinance;

            (c) Any physician licensed to practice medicine in Missouri under the provisions of chapter 334, RSMo, who is employed by or under contract with a federally funded community health center organized under Section 315, 329, 330 or 340 of the Public Health Services Act (42 U.S.C. 216, 254c) to provide services to patients for medical care caused by pregnancy, delivery, and child care, if such medical services are provided by the physician pursuant to the contract or employment agreement without compensation or the physician is paid from no other source than a governmental agency or such a federally funded community health center except for patient co-payments required by federal or state law or local ordinance. In the case of any claim or judgment that arises under this paragraph, the aggregate of payments from the state legal expense fund shall be limited to a maximum of one million dollars for all claims arising out of and judgments based upon the same act or acts alleged in a single cause against any such physician, and shall not exceed one million dollars for any one claimant;

            (d) Any physician licensed pursuant to chapter 334, RSMo, who is affiliated with and receives no compensation from a nonprofit entity qualified as exempt from federal taxation under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, which offers a free health screening in any setting or any physician, nurse, physician assistant, dental hygienist, dentist, or other health care professional licensed or registered under chapter 330, 331, 332, 334, 335, 336, 337, or 338, RSMo, who provides health care services within the scope of his or her license or registration at a city or county health department organized under chapter 192, RSMo, or chapter 205, RSMo, a city health department operating under a city charter, or a combined city-county health department, or a nonprofit community health center qualified as exempt from federal taxation under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, if such services are restricted to primary care and preventive health services, provided that such services shall not include the performance of an abortion, and if such health services are provided by the health care professional licensed or registered under chapter 330, 331, 332, 334, 335, 336, 337, or 338, RSMo, without compensation. MO HealthNet or Medicare payments for primary care and preventive health services provided by a health care professional licensed or registered under chapter 330, 331, 332, 334, 335, 336, 337, or 338, RSMo, who volunteers at a free health clinic is not compensation for the purpose of this section if the total payment is assigned to the free health clinic. For the purposes of the section, "free health clinic" means a nonprofit community health center qualified as exempt from federal taxation under Section 501 (c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1987, as amended, that provides primary care and preventive health services to people without health insurance coverage for the services provided without charge. In the case of any claim or judgment that arises under this paragraph, the aggregate of payments from the state legal expense fund shall be limited to a maximum of five hundred thousand dollars, for all claims arising out of and judgments based upon the same act or acts alleged in a single cause and shall not exceed five hundred thousand dollars for any one claimant, and insurance policies purchased pursuant to the provisions of section 105.721 shall be limited to five hundred thousand dollars. Liability or malpractice insurance obtained and maintained in force by or on behalf of any health care professional licensed or registered under chapter 330, 331, 332, 334, 335, 336, 337, or 338, RSMo, shall not be considered available to pay that portion of a judgment or claim for which the state legal expense fund is liable under this paragraph;

            (e) Any physician, nurse, physician assistant, dental hygienist, or dentist licensed or registered to practice medicine, nursing, or dentistry or to act as a physician assistant or dental hygienist in Missouri under the provisions of chapter 332, 334, or 335, RSMo, or lawfully practicing, who provides medical, nursing, or dental treatment within the scope of his license or registration to students of a school whether a public, private, or parochial elementary or secondary school or summer camp, if such physician's treatment is restricted to primary care and preventive health services and if such medical, dental, or nursing services are provided by the physician, dentist, physician assistant, dental hygienist, or nurse without compensation. In the case of any claim or judgment that arises under this paragraph, the aggregate of payments from the state legal expense fund shall be limited to a maximum of five hundred thousand dollars, for all claims arising out of and judgments based upon the same act or acts alleged in a single cause and shall not exceed five hundred thousand dollars for any one claimant, and insurance policies purchased pursuant to the provisions of section 105.721 shall be limited to five hundred thousand dollars. As used in this paragraph, "summer camp" means a program operated only between May and September by a person or organization with the primary function of providing a summer recreational program for children no younger than five years of age or older than eighteen years of age; or

            (f) Any physician licensed under chapter 334, RSMo, or dentist licensed under chapter 332, RSMo, providing medical care without compensation to an individual referred to his or her care by a city or county health department organized under chapter 192 or 205, RSMo, a city health department operating under a city charter, or a combined city-county health department, or nonprofit health center qualified as exempt from federal taxation under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, or a federally funded community health center organized under Section 315, 329, 330, or 340 of the Public Health Services Act, 42 U.S.C. Section 216, 254c; provided that such treatment shall not include the performance of an abortion. In the case of any claim or judgment that arises under this paragraph, the aggregate of payments from the state legal expense fund shall be limited to a maximum of one million dollars for all claims arising out of and judgments based upon the same act or acts alleged in a single cause and shall not exceed one million dollars for any one claimant, and insurance policies purchased under the provisions of section 105.721 shall be limited to one million dollars. Liability or malpractice insurance obtained and maintained in force by or on behalf of any physician licensed under chapter 334, RSMo, or any dentist licensed under chapter 332, RSMo, shall not be considered available to pay that portion of a judgment or claim for which the state legal expense fund is liable under this paragraph;

            (4) Staff employed by the juvenile division of any judicial circuit;

            (5) Any attorney licensed to practice law in the state of Missouri who practices law at or through a nonprofit community social services center qualified as exempt from federal taxation under Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, or through any agency of any federal, state, or local government, if such legal practice is provided by the attorney without compensation. In the case of any claim or judgment that arises under this subdivision, the aggregate of payments from the state legal expense fund shall be limited to a maximum of five hundred thousand dollars for all claims arising out of and judgments based upon the same act or acts alleged in a single cause and shall not exceed five hundred thousand dollars for any one claimant, and insurance policies purchased pursuant to the provisions of section 105.721 shall be limited to five hundred thousand dollars; or

            (6) Any social welfare board created under section 205.770, RSMo, and the members and officers thereof upon conduct of such officer or employee while acting in his or her capacity as a board member or officer, and any physician, nurse, physician assistant, dental hygienist, dentist, or other health care professional licensed or registered under chapter 330, 331, 332, 334, 335, 336, 337, or 338, RSMo, who is referred to provide medical care without compensation by the board and who provides health care services within the scope of his or her license or registration as prescribed by the board.

            3. The department of health and senior services shall promulgate rules regarding contract procedures and the documentation of care provided under paragraphs (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f) of subdivision (3) of subsection 2 of this section. The limitation on payments from the state legal expense fund or any policy of insurance procured pursuant to the provisions of section 105.721, provided in subsection 7 of this section, shall not apply to any claim or judgment arising under paragraph (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (f) of subdivision (3) of subsection 2 of this section. Any claim or judgment arising under paragraph (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (f) of subdivision (3) of subsection 2 of this section shall be paid by the state legal expense fund or any policy of insurance procured pursuant to section 105.721, to the extent damages are allowed under sections 538.205 to 538.235, RSMo. Liability or malpractice insurance obtained and maintained in force by any health care professional licensed or registered under chapter 330, 331, 332, 334, 335, 336, 337, or 338, RSMo, for coverage concerning his or her private practice and assets shall not be considered available under subsection 7 of this section to pay that portion of a judgment or claim for which the state legal expense fund is liable under paragraph (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (f) of subdivision (3) of subsection 2 of this section. However, a health care professional licensed or registered under chapter 330, 331, 332, 334, 335, 336, 337, or 338, RSMo, may purchase liability or malpractice insurance for coverage of liability claims or judgments based upon care rendered under paragraphs (c), (d), (e), and (f) of subdivision (3) of subsection 2 of this section which exceed the amount of liability coverage provided by the state legal expense fund under those paragraphs. Even if paragraph (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (f) of subdivision (3) of subsection 2 of this section is repealed or modified, the state legal expense fund shall be available for damages which occur while the pertinent paragraph (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (f) of subdivision (3) of subsection 2 of this section is in effect.

            4. The attorney general shall promulgate rules regarding contract procedures and the documentation of legal practice provided under subdivision (5) of subsection 2 of this section. The limitation on payments from the state legal expense fund or any policy of insurance procured pursuant to section 105.721 as provided in subsection 7 of this section shall not apply to any claim or judgment arising under subdivision (5) of subsection 2 of this section. Any claim or judgment arising under subdivision (5) of subsection 2 of this section shall be paid by the state legal expense fund or any policy of insurance procured pursuant to section 105.721 to the extent damages are allowed under sections 538.205 to 538.235, RSMo. Liability or malpractice insurance otherwise obtained and maintained in force shall not be considered available under subsection 7 of this section to pay that portion of a judgment or claim for which the state legal expense fund is liable under subdivision (5) of subsection 2 of this section. However, an attorney may obtain liability or malpractice insurance for coverage of liability claims or judgments based upon legal practice rendered under subdivision (5) of subsection 2 of this section that exceed the amount of liability coverage provided by the state legal expense fund under subdivision (5) of subsection 2 of this section. Even if subdivision (5) of subsection 2 of this section is repealed or amended, the state legal expense fund shall be available for damages that occur while the pertinent subdivision (5) of subsection 2 of this section is in effect.

            5. All payments shall be made from the state legal expense fund by the commissioner of administration with the approval of the attorney general. Payment from the state legal expense fund of a claim or final judgment award against a health care professional licensed or registered under chapter 330, 331, 332, 334, 335, 336, 337, or 338, RSMo, described in paragraph (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (f) of subdivision (3) of subsection 2 of this section, or against an attorney in subdivision (5) of subsection 2 of this section, shall only be made for services rendered in accordance with the conditions of such paragraphs. In the case of any claim or judgment against an officer or employee of the state or any agency of the state based upon conduct of such officer or employee arising out of and performed in connection with his or her official duties on behalf of the state or any agency of the state that would give rise to a cause of action under section 537.600, RSMo, the state legal expense fund shall be liable, excluding punitive damages, for:

            (1) Economic damages to any one claimant; and

            (2) Up to three hundred fifty thousand dollars for noneconomic damages. The state legal expense fund shall be the exclusive remedy and shall preclude any other civil actions or proceedings for money damages arising out of or relating to the same subject matter against the state officer or employee, or the officer's or employee's estate. No officer or employee of the state or any agency of the state shall be individually liable in his or her personal capacity for conduct of such officer or employee arising out of and performed in connection with his or her official duties on behalf of the state or any agency of the state. The provisions of this subsection shall not apply to any defendant who is not an officer or employee of the state or any agency of the state in any proceeding against an officer or employee of the state or any agency of the state. Nothing in this subsection shall limit the rights and remedies otherwise available to a claimant under state law or common law in proceedings where one or more defendants is not an officer or employee of the state or any agency of the state.

            6. The limitation on awards for noneconomic damages provided for in this subsection shall be increased or decreased on an annual basis effective January first of each year in accordance with the Implicit Price Deflator for Personal Consumption Expenditures as published by the Bureau of Economic Analysis of the United States Department of Commerce. The current value of the limitation shall be calculated by the director of the department of insurance, financial institutions and professional registration, who shall furnish that value to the secretary of state, who shall publish such value in the Missouri Register as soon after each January first as practicable, but it shall otherwise be exempt from the provisions of section 536.021, RSMo.

            7. Except as provided in subsection 3 of this section, in the case of any claim or judgment that arises under sections 537.600 and 537.610, RSMo, against the state of Missouri, or an agency of the state, the aggregate of payments from the state legal expense fund and from any policy of insurance procured pursuant to the provisions of section 105.721 shall not exceed the limits of liability as provided in sections 537.600 to 537.610, RSMo. No payment shall be made from the state legal expense fund or any policy of insurance procured with state funds pursuant to section 105.721 unless and until the benefits provided to pay the claim by any other policy of liability insurance have been exhausted.

            8. The provisions of section 33.080, RSMo, notwithstanding, any moneys remaining to the credit of the state legal expense fund at the end of an appropriation period shall not be transferred to general revenue.

            9. Any rule or portion of a rule, as that term is defined in section 536.010, RSMo, that is promulgated under the authority delegated in sections 105.711 to 105.726 shall become effective only if it has been promulgated pursuant to the provisions of chapter 536, RSMo. Nothing in this section shall be interpreted to repeal or affect the validity of any rule filed or adopted prior to August 28, 1999, if it fully complied with the provisions of chapter 536, RSMo. This section and chapter 536, RSMo, are nonseverable and if any of the powers vested with the general assembly pursuant to chapter 536, RSMo, to review, to delay the effective date, or to disapprove and annul a rule are subsequently held unconstitutional, then the grant of rulemaking authority and any rule proposed or adopted after August 28, 1999, shall be invalid and void.

            193.087. 1. In addition to the requirements of subsection 2 of section 193.085, when a birth occurs to an unmarried mother, whether in an institution or en route to an institution, the person in charge of the institution or a designated representative shall:

            (1) Provide a form or affidavit prescribed by the state registrar that may be completed by the child's mother and father to voluntarily acknowledge paternity of the child pursuant to section 193.215;

            (2) File the form, when completed, along with the certificate required by this section. Such completed form for the voluntary acknowledgment of paternity is not a public record; except that, a copy of such voluntary acknowledgment of paternity shall, upon request, be made available to the child's mother, the father listed on the child's birth record, the attorney representing such mother or father, the child, the guardian ad litem, and the child's attorney and the state and federal government for child support purposes. Upon payment of the fee established by rule by the department under section 454.400, RSMo, a copy of such voluntary acknowledgment of paternity shall be provided by the state registrar to the child's mother, the father listed on the child's birth record, the attorney representing such mother or alleged father, the child, the guardian ad litem, and the child's attorney; and

            (3) Provide oral and written notice to the affiant required by section 193.215.

            2. Any institution, the person in charge or a designated representative shall be immune from civil or criminal liability for providing the form or affidavit required by subsection 1 of this section, the information developed pursuant to that subsection, or otherwise fulfilling the duties required by subsection 1 of this section.

            3. The family support division may contract with the department of health and senior services to provide assistance and training to the hospital staff assigned responsibility for providing the information, as appropriate, to carry out duties pursuant to this section. The family support division shall develop and distribute free of charge the information on the rights and responsibilities of parents that is required to be distributed pursuant to this section. The department of health and senior services shall provide free of charge to hospitals the acknowledgment of paternity affidavit, and instructions on the completion of the affidavit.

            4. If no contract is developed with the department of health and senior services, then the family support division shall provide the assistance and training activities to hospitals pursuant to subsection 3 of this section.

            5. Any affiant who intentionally misidentifies another person as a parent may be prosecuted for perjury, pursuant to section 575.040, RSMo.

            6. Due to lack of cooperation by public assistance recipients, the family support division shall either suspend the entire public assistance cash grant, or remove the needs of the adult recipient of public assistance from the cash grant, subject to good cause exceptions pursuant to federal law or regulations.

            193.125. 1. This section shall be known and may be cited as the "Debbi Daniel Law".

            2. Except as otherwise provided in subsection 3 of this section, for each adoption decreed by a court of competent jurisdiction in this state, the court shall require the preparation of a certificate of decree of adoption on a form as prescribed or approved by the state registrar. The certificate of decree of adoption shall include such facts as are necessary to locate and identify the certificate of birth of the person adopted, and shall provide information necessary to establish a new certificate of birth of the person adopted and shall identify the court and county of the adoption and be certified by the clerk of the court. The state registrar shall file the original certificate of birth with the certificate of decree of adoption and such file may be opened by the state registrar only upon receipt of a certified copy of an order as decreed by the court of adoption or in accordance with section 193.128.

            3. No new certificate of birth shall be established following an adoption by a stepparent if so requested by the adoptive parent or the adoptive stepparent of the child.

            4. Information necessary to prepare the report of adoption shall be furnished by each petitioner for adoption or the petitioner's attorney. The social welfare agency or any person having knowledge of the facts shall supply the court with such additional information as may be necessary to complete the report. The provision of such information shall be prerequisite to the issuance of a final decree in the matter by the court.

            5. Whenever an adoption decree is amended or annulled, the clerk of the court shall prepare a report thereof, which shall include such facts as are necessary to identify the original adoption report and the facts amended in the adoption decree as shall be necessary to properly amend the birth record.

            6. Not later than the fifteenth day of each calendar month or more frequently as directed by the state registrar the clerk of the court shall forward to the state registrar reports of decrees of adoption, annulment of adoption and amendments of decrees of adoption which were entered in the preceding month, together with such related reports as the state registrar shall require.

            7. When the state registrar shall receive a report of adoption, annulment of adoption, or amendment of a decree of adoption for a person born outside this state, he or she shall forward such report to the state registrar in the state of birth.

            8. In a case of adoption in this state of a person not born in any state, territory or possession of the United States or country not covered by interchange agreements, the state registrar shall upon receipt of the certificate of decree of adoption prepare a birth certificate in the name of the adopted person, as decreed by the court. The state registrar shall file the certificate of the decree of adoption, and such documents may be opened by the state registrar only by an order of court. The birth certificate prepared under this subsection shall have the same legal weight as evidence as a delayed or altered birth certificate as provided in section 193.235.

            9. The department, upon receipt of proof that a person has been adopted by a Missouri resident pursuant to laws of countries other than the United States, shall prepare a birth certificate in the name of the adopted person as decreed by the court of such country. If such proof contains the surname of either adoptive parent, the department of health and senior services shall prepare a birth certificate as requested by the adoptive parents. Any subsequent change of the name of the adopted person shall be made by a court of competent jurisdiction. The proof of adoption required by the department shall include a copy of the original birth certificate and adoption decree, an English translation of such birth certificate and adoption decree, and a copy of the approval of the immigration of the adopted person by the Immigration and Naturalization Service of the United States government which shows the child lawfully entered the United States. The authenticity of the translation of the birth certificate and adoption decree required by this subsection shall be sworn to by the translator in a notarized document. The state registrar shall file such documents received by the department relating to such adoption and such documents may be opened by the state registrar only by an order of a court. A birth certificate pursuant to this subsection shall be issued upon request of one of the adoptive parents of such adopted person or upon request of the adopted person if of legal age. The birth certificate prepared pursuant to the provisions of this subsection shall have the same legal weight as evidence as a delayed or altered birth certificate as provided in sections 193.005 to 193.325.

            10. If no certificate of birth is on file for the person under twelve years of age who has been adopted, a belated certificate of birth shall be filed with the state registrar as provided in sections 193.005 to 193.325 before a new birth record is to be established as result of adoption. A new certificate is to be established on the basis of the adoption under this section and shall be prepared on a certificate of live birth form.

            11. If no certificate of birth has been filed for a person twelve years of age or older who has been adopted, a new birth certificate is to be established under this section upon receipt of proof of adoption as required by the department. A new certificate shall be prepared in the name of the adopted person as decreed by the court, registering adopted parents' names. The new certificate shall be prepared on a delayed birth certificate form. The adoption decree is placed in a sealed file and shall not be subject to inspection except upon an order of the court.

            193.128. 1. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, an adopted person, the adopted person's attorney, or the adopted person's descendants, if the adopted person is deceased, may obtain a copy of such adopted person's original certificate of birth from the state registrar in accordance with this section.

            2. In order for an adopted person to receive a copy of his or her original certificate of birth, the adopted person shall:

            (1) Be at least eighteen years of age;

            (2) Have been born in this state;

            (3) File a written application with and provide appropriate proof of identification to the state registrar; and

            (4) If included with the copy of the original birth certificate, agree in writing to abide by the birth parent's preference stated in the contact preference form attached to the adopted person's original birth certificate in accordance with section 193.132.

            3. The state registrar may require a waiting period and impose a fee for issuance of the uncertified copy under subsection 4 of this section. The fees and waiting period imposed under this subsection shall be identical to the fees and waiting period generally imposed on persons seeking their own birth certificates.

            4. Upon receipt of a written application and proof of identification under subsection 2 of this section and fulfillment of the requirements of subsection 3 of this section, the state registrar shall issue an uncertified copy of the unaltered original birth certificate to the applicant. The copy of the birth certificate shall have the following statement printed on it: "for informational purposes only - not to be used for establishing identity". If a contact preference and medical history form has been completed and submitted to the state registrar under section 193.132, the state registrar shall also provide such information.

            5. The provisions of subsections 1 to 4 of this section shall not apply to adoptions instituted or completed prior to August 28, 2010, except that a copy of a medical history form, which has had all identifying information redacted, shall be issued to such adopted person. For adoptions instituted or completed prior to August 28, 2010, the state registrar shall follow the provisions of this subsection and shall release the original certificate of birth only if the birth mother is deceased. If the birth mother is not deceased, the state registrar shall, within three months of application by the adopted person, make reasonable efforts to contact the birth mother via telephone or United States mail, personally and confidentially, to obtain the birth mother's consent or denial to release the original certificate of birth. If the state registrar does not have sufficient information or resources to locate and make contact with the birth mother, the state registrar may refer the adopted person to, or work in conjunction with, the child placing agency or the juvenile court to make the contact and conduct the search as provided in section 453.121. The state registrar, the child placing agency, or the juvenile court personnel may charge actual costs to the adopted person for the cost of making such search of the birth mother. If the state registrar has been unable to contact the birth mother within three months, the state registrar shall not release the certificate of birth. The adopted person may reapply for a copy of his or her original certificate of birth within one year from the end of the three-month period during which the attempted contact with the birth mother was previously made. The state registrar shall not release the certificate of birth until the birth mother submits a subsequent written consent for release. If the birth mother gives her consent, the state registrar, the child placing agency, or the juvenile court shall also release to the adopted person the identifying information obtained as a result of the search.

            6. The state registrar shall develop by rule the application form required by this section and may adopt other rules for the administration of this section. Any rule or portion of a rule, as that term is defined in section 536.010, that is created under the authority delegated in this section shall become effective only if it complies with and is subject to all of the provisions of chapter 536, and, if applicable, section 536.028. This section and chapter 536, are nonseverable and if any of the powers vested with the general assembly pursuant to chapter 536, to review, to delay the effective date, or to disapprove and annul a rule are subsequently held unconstitutional, then the grant of rulemaking authority and any rule proposed or adopted after August 28, 2010, shall be invalid and void.

            7. Nothing in this section shall be construed as violating the provisions of section 453.121.

            193.132. 1. As used in this section, the following terms mean:

            (1) "Adoptee", the person who is the subject of a birth certificate;

            (2) "Birth parent", the person who is the biological parent of an adoptee and who is named as the parent on the original birth certificate of the adoptee;

            (3) "Contact preference form", the form developed by the state registrar under subsection 4 of this section;

            (4) "Medical history form", the form developed by the state registrar under subsection 3 of this section. At a minimum, such form shall include medical history information regarding:

            (a) Congenital or genetic history;

            (b) Psychosocial history;

(c) Chronic diseases;

            (d) Infectious diseases;

            (e) Allergies;

            (f) Pregnancy and birth history; and

            (g) Deaths of birth family members that may affect the medical history.

            2. Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the state registrar shall develop and, upon request, provide each birth parent with a contact preference form and a medical history form as described in this section.

            3. A birth parent may use a medical history form to describe his or her medical history. A birth parent shall fill out a medical history form if such birth parent also fills out a contact preference form.

            4. The birth parent may state a preference regarding contact by an adoptee on a contact preference form. The form shall contain the following statements from which the birth parent may choose only one:

            (1) "I would like to be contacted. I have completed this contact preference form and a medical history form and am filing both forms with the State Registrar.";

            (2) "I would prefer to be contacted only through an intermediary. I have completed this contact preference form and a medical history form and am filing both with the State Registrar."; or

            (3) "Do not contact me. I may change this preference by filling out another contact preference form. I have completed this contact preference form and a medical history form and am filing both with the State Registrar.".

            5. Upon receipt of a completed contact preference form and a medical history form, the state registrar shall attach the completed forms to the original birth certificate of the adoptee. A completed contact preference form and medical history form shall have the same level of confidentiality as the original birth certificate.

            6. The state registrar shall develop by rule the forms required by this section and may adopt other rules for the administration of this section. Any rule or portion of a rule, as that term is defined in section 536.010, that is created under the authority delegated in this section shall become effective only if it complies with and is subject to all of the provisions of chapter 536, and, if applicable, section 536.028. This section and chapter 536, are nonseverable and if any of the powers vested with the general assembly pursuant to chapter 536, to review, to delay the effective date, or to disapprove and annul a rule are subsequently held unconstitutional, then the grant of rulemaking authority and any rule proposed or adopted after August 28, 2010, shall be invalid and void.

            7. Nothing in this section shall be construed as violating the provisions of section 453.121.

            193.255. 1. The state registrar and other custodians of vital records authorized by the state registrar to issue certified copies of vital records upon receipt of application shall issue a certified copy of any vital record in his or her custody or a part thereof to any applicant having a direct and tangible interest in the vital record. Each copy issued shall show the date of registration, and copies issued from records marked "Delayed" or "Amended" shall be similarly marked and show the effective date. The documentary evidence used to establish a delayed certificate shall be shown on all copies issued. All forms and procedures used in the issuance of certified copies of vital records in the state shall be provided or approved by the state registrar. In accordance with sections 193.128 and 193.132, the state registrar and other custodians of vital records authorized by the state registrar to issue copies of vital records shall issue an uncertified copy of an original birth certificate, contact preference form, and medical history form to an adopted person. The state registrar may impose a minimal fee to the adopted person for the costs of providing copies of the contact preference form and medical history form.

            2. A certified copy of a vital record or any part thereof, issued in accordance with subsection 1 of this section, shall be considered for all purposes the same as the original and shall be prima facie evidence of the facts stated therein, provided that the evidentiary value of a certificate or record filed more than one year after the event, or a record which has been amended, shall be determined by the judicial or administrative body or official before whom the certificate is offered as evidence.

            3. The federal agency responsible for national vital statistics may be furnished such copies or data from the system of vital statistics as it may require for national statistics, provided such federal agency share in the cost of collecting, processing, and transmitting such data, and provided further that such data shall not be used for other than statistical purposes by the federal agency unless so authorized by the state registrar.

            4. Federal, state, local and other public or private agencies may, upon request, be furnished copies or data of any other vital statistics not obtainable under subsection 1 of this section for statistical or administrative purposes upon such terms or conditions as may be prescribed by regulation, provided that such copies or data shall not be used for purposes other than those for which they were requested unless so authorized by the state registrar.

            5. The state registrar may, by agreement, transmit copies of records and other reports required by sections 193.005 to 193.325 to offices of vital statistics outside this state when such records or other reports relate to residents of those jurisdictions or persons born in those jurisdictions. This agreement shall require that the copies be used for statistical and administrative purposes only, and the agreement shall further provide for the retention and disposition of such copies. Copies received by the department from offices of vital statistics in other states shall be handled in the same manner as prescribed in this section.

            6. No person shall prepare or issue any certificate which purports to be an original, certified copy, or copy of a vital record except as authorized herein or by regulations adopted hereunder.

            7. Upon application from either parent, or if both parents are deceased, the sibling of the stillborn child, pursuant to subsection 7 of section 193.165, the state registrar or other custodians of vital records shall issue to such applicant a certificate of birth resulting in stillbirth. The certificate shall be based upon the information available from the spontaneous fetal death report filed pursuant to section 193.165. Any certificate of birth resulting in stillbirth issued shall conspicuously include, in no smaller than twelve-point type, the statement "This is not proof of a live birth.". No certificate of birth resulting in stillbirth shall be issued to any person other than a parent, or if both parents are deceased, the sibling of the stillborn child who files an application pursuant to section 193.165. The state registrar or other custodians of vital records are authorized to charge a minimal fee to such applicant to cover the actual costs of providing the certificate pursuant to this section.

            8. Any parent, or if both parents are deceased, any sibling of the stillborn child may file an application for a certificate of birth resulting in stillbirth for a birth that resulted in stillbirth prior to August 28, 2004.

            210.145. 1. The division shall develop protocols which give priority to:

            (1) Ensuring the well-being and safety of the child in instances where child abuse or neglect has been alleged;

            (2) Promoting the preservation and reunification of children and families consistent with state and federal law;

            (3) Providing due process for those accused of child abuse or neglect; and

            (4) Maintaining an information system operating at all times, capable of receiving and maintaining reports. This information system shall have the ability to receive reports over a single, statewide toll-free number. Such information system shall maintain the results of all investigations, family assessments and services, and other relevant information.

            2. The division shall utilize structured decision-making protocols for classification purposes of all child abuse and neglect reports. The protocols developed by the division shall give priority to ensuring the well-being and safety of the child. All child abuse and neglect reports shall be initiated within twenty-four hours and shall be classified based upon the reported risk and injury to the child. The division shall promulgate rules regarding the structured decision-making protocols to be utilized for all child abuse and neglect reports.

            3. Upon receipt of a report, the division shall determine if the report merits investigation, including reports which if true would constitute a suspected violation of any of the following: section 565.020, 565.021, 565.023, 565.024, or 565.050, RSMo, if the victim is a child less than eighteen years of age, section 566.030 or 566.060, RSMo, if the victim is a child less than eighteen years of age, or other crimes under chapter 566, RSMo, if the victim is a child less than eighteen years of age and the perpetrator is twenty-one years of age or older, section 567.050, RSMo, if the victim is a child less than eighteen years of age, section 568.020, 568.030, 568.045, 568.050, 568.060, 568.080, or 568.090, RSMo, section 573.025, 573.035, 573.037, or 573.040, RSMo, or an attempt to commit any such crimes. The division shall immediately communicate all reports that merit investigation to its appropriate local office and any relevant information as may be contained in the information system. The local division staff shall determine, through the use of protocols developed by the division, whether an investigation or the family assessment and services approach should be used to respond to the allegation. The protocols developed by the division shall give priority to ensuring the well-being and safety of the child.

            4. The local office shall contact the appropriate law enforcement agency immediately upon receipt of a report which division personnel determine merits an investigation and provide such agency with a detailed description of the report received. In such cases the local division office shall request the assistance of the local law enforcement agency in all aspects of the investigation of the complaint. The appropriate law enforcement agency shall either assist the division in the investigation or provide the division, within twenty-four hours, an explanation in writing detailing the reasons why it is unable to assist.

            5. The local office of the division shall cause an investigation or family assessment and services approach to be initiated in accordance with the protocols established in subsection 2 of this section, except in cases where the sole basis for the report is educational neglect. If the report indicates that educational neglect is the only complaint and there is no suspicion of other neglect or abuse, the investigation shall be initiated within seventy-two hours of receipt of the report. If the report indicates the child is in danger of serious physical harm or threat to life, an investigation shall include direct observation of the subject child within twenty-four hours of the receipt of the report. Local law enforcement shall take all necessary steps to facilitate such direct observation. If the parents of the child are not the alleged abusers, a parent of the child must be notified prior to the child being interviewed by the division. If the abuse is alleged to have occurred in a school or child-care facility the division shall not meet with the child in any school building or child-care facility building where abuse of such child is alleged to have occurred. When the child is reported absent from the residence, the location and the well-being of the child shall be verified. For purposes of this subsection, child-care facility shall have the same meaning as such term is defined in section 210.201.

            6. The director of the division shall name at least one chief investigator for each local division office, who shall direct the division response on any case involving a second or subsequent incident regarding the same subject child or perpetrator. The duties of a chief investigator shall include verification of direct observation of the subject child by the division and shall ensure information regarding the status of an investigation is provided to the public school district liaison. The public school district liaison shall develop protocol in conjunction with the chief investigator to ensure information regarding an investigation is shared with appropriate school personnel. The superintendent of each school district shall designate a specific person or persons to act as the public school district liaison. Should the subject child attend a nonpublic school the chief investigator shall notify the school principal of the investigation. Upon notification of an investigation, all information received by the public school district liaison or the school shall be subject to the provisions of the federal Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA), 20 U.S.C., Section 1232g, and federal rule 34 C.F.R., Part 99.

            7. The investigation shall include but not be limited to the nature, extent, and cause of the abuse or neglect; the identity and age of the person responsible for the abuse or neglect; the names and conditions of other children in the home, if any; the home environment and the relationship of the subject child to the parents or other persons responsible for the child's care; any indication of incidents of physical violence against any other household or family member; and other pertinent data.

            8. When a report has been made by a person required to report under section 210.115, the division shall contact the person who made such report within forty-eight hours of the receipt of the report in order to ensure that full information has been received and to obtain any additional information or medical records, or both, that may be pertinent.

            9. Upon completion of the investigation, if the division suspects that the report was made maliciously or for the purpose of harassment, the division shall refer the report and any evidence of malice or harassment to the local prosecuting or circuit attorney.

            10. Multidisciplinary teams shall be used whenever conducting the investigation as determined by the division in conjunction with local law enforcement. Multidisciplinary teams shall be used in providing protective or preventive social services, including the services of law enforcement, a liaison of the local public school, the juvenile officer, the juvenile court, and other agencies, both public and private.

            11. For all family support team meetings involving an alleged victim of child abuse or neglect, the parents, legal counsel for the parents, foster parents, the legal guardian or custodian of the child, the guardian ad litem for the child, and the volunteer advocate for the child shall be provided notice and be permitted to attend all such meetings. Family members, other than alleged perpetrators, or other community informal or formal service providers that provide significant support to the child and other individuals may also be invited at the discretion of the parents of the child. In addition, the parents, the legal counsel for the parents, the legal guardian or custodian and the foster parents may request that other individuals, other than alleged perpetrators, be permitted to attend such team meetings. Once a person is provided notice of or attends such team meetings, the division or the convenor of the meeting shall provide such persons with notice of all such subsequent meetings involving the child. Families may determine whether individuals invited at their discretion shall continue to be invited.

            12. If the appropriate local division personnel determine after an investigation has begun that completing an investigation is not appropriate, the division shall conduct a family assessment and services approach. The division shall provide written notification to local law enforcement prior to terminating any investigative process. The reason for the termination of the investigative process shall be documented in the record of the division and the written notification submitted to local law enforcement. Such notification shall not preclude nor prevent any investigation by law enforcement.

            13. If the appropriate local division personnel determines to use a family assessment and services approach, the division shall:

            (1) Assess any service needs of the family. The assessment of risk and service needs shall be based on information gathered from the family and other sources;

            (2) Provide services which are voluntary and time-limited unless it is determined by the division based on the assessment of risk that there will be a high risk of abuse or neglect if the family refuses to accept the services. The division shall identify services for families where it is determined that the child is at high risk of future abuse or neglect. The division shall thoroughly document in the record its attempt to provide voluntary services and the reasons these services are important to reduce the risk of future abuse or neglect to the child. If the family continues to refuse voluntary services or the child needs to be protected, the division may commence an investigation;

            (3) Commence an immediate investigation if at any time during the family assessment and services approach the division determines that an investigation, as delineated in sections 210.109 to 210.183, is required. The division staff who have conducted the assessment may remain involved in the provision of services to the child and family;

            (4) Document at the time the case is closed, the outcome of the family assessment and services approach, any service provided and the removal of risk to the child, if it existed.

            14. Within [thirty] forty-five working days of an oral report of abuse or neglect, the local office shall update the information in the information system. The information system shall contain, at a minimum, the determination made by the division as a result of the investigation, identifying information on the subjects of the report, those responsible for the care of the subject child and other relevant dispositional information. The division shall complete all investigations within [thirty] forty-five working days, unless good cause for the failure to complete the investigation is documented in the information system. If a child involved in a pending investigation dies, the investigation shall remain open until the division's investigation surrounding the death is completed. If the investigation is not completed within [thirty] forty-five working days, the information system shall be updated at regular intervals and upon the completion of the investigation. The information in the information system shall be updated to reflect any subsequent findings, including any changes to the findings based on an administrative or judicial hearing on the matter.

            15. No determination of the division shall be entered in the central registry until:

            (1) The alleged perpetrator fails to request review by the child abuse and neglect review board or trial de novo in the circuit court within the thirty-day period provided in subsection 3 of section 210.152; or

            (2) A determination is made by the child abuse and neglect review board that the alleged perpetrator has committed child abuse or neglect.

            16. A person required to report under section 210.115 to the division and any person making a report of child abuse or neglect made to the division which is not made anonymously shall be informed by the division of his or her right to obtain information concerning the disposition of his or her report. Such person shall receive, from the local office, if requested, information on the general disposition of his or her report. Such person may receive, if requested, findings and information concerning the case. Such release of information shall be at the discretion of the director based upon a review of the reporter's ability to assist in protecting the child or the potential harm to the child or other children within the family. The local office shall respond to the request within forty-five days. The findings shall be made available to the reporter within five days of the outcome of the investigation. If the report is determined to be unsubstantiated, the reporter may request that the report be referred by the division to the office of child advocate for children's protection and services established in sections 37.700 to 37.730, RSMo. Upon request by a reporter under this subsection, the division shall refer an unsubstantiated report of child abuse or neglect to the office of child advocate for children's protection and services.

            [16.] 17. In any judicial proceeding involving the custody of a child the fact that a report may have been made pursuant to sections 210.109 to 210.183 shall not be admissible. However:

            (1) Nothing in this subsection shall prohibit the introduction of evidence from independent sources to support the allegations that may have caused a report to have been made; and

            (2) The court may on its own motion, or shall if requested by a party to the proceeding, make an inquiry not on the record with the children's division to determine if such a report has been made. If a report has been made, the court may stay the custody proceeding until the children's division completes its investigation.

            [17.] 18. In any judicial proceeding involving the custody of a child where the court determines that the child is in need of services pursuant to paragraph (d) of subdivision [(d)] (1) of subsection 1 of section 211.031, RSMo, and has taken jurisdiction, the child's parent, guardian or custodian shall not be entered into the registry.

            [18.] 19. The children's division is hereby granted the authority to promulgate rules and regulations pursuant to the provisions of section 207.021, RSMo, and chapter 536, RSMo, to carry out the provisions of sections 210.109 to 210.183.

            [19.] 20. Any rule or portion of a rule, as that term is defined in section 536.010, RSMo, that is created under the authority delegated in this section shall become effective only if it complies with and is subject to all of the provisions of chapter 536, RSMo, and, if applicable, section 536.028, RSMo. This section and chapter 536, RSMo, are nonseverable and if any of the powers vested with the general assembly pursuant to chapter 536, RSMo, to review, to delay the effective date or to disapprove and annul a rule are subsequently held unconstitutional, then the grant of rulemaking authority and any rule proposed or adopted after August 28, 2000, shall be invalid and void.

            210.150. 1. The children's division shall ensure the confidentiality of all reports and records made pursuant to sections 210.109 to 210.183 and maintained by the division, its local offices, the central registry, and other appropriate persons, officials, and institutions pursuant to sections 210.109 to 210.183. To protect the rights of the family and the child named in the report as a victim, the children's division shall establish guidelines which will ensure that any disclosure of information concerning the abuse and neglect involving that child is made only to persons or agencies that have a right to such information. The division may require persons to make written requests for access to records maintained by the division. The division shall only release information to persons who have a right to such information. The division shall notify persons receiving information pursuant to subdivisions (2), (7), (8) and (9) of subsection 2 of this section of the purpose for which the information is released and of the penalties for unauthorized dissemination of information. Such information shall be used only for the purpose for which the information is released.

            2. Only the following persons shall have access to investigation records contained in the central registry:

            (1) Appropriate federal, state or local criminal justice agency personnel, or any agent of such entity, with a need for such information under the law to protect children from abuse or neglect;

            (2) A physician or a designated agent who reasonably believes that the child being examined may be abused or neglected;

            (3) Appropriate staff of the division and of its local offices, including interdisciplinary teams which are formed to assist the division in investigation, evaluation and treatment of child abuse and neglect cases or a multidisciplinary provider of professional treatment services for a child referred to the provider;

            (4) Any child named in the report as a victim, or a legal representative, or the parent, if not the alleged perpetrator, or guardian of such person when such person is a minor, or is mentally ill or otherwise incompetent, but the names of reporters shall not be furnished to persons in this category. Prior to the release of any identifying information, the division shall determine if the release of such identifying information may place a person's life or safety in danger. If the division makes the determination that a person's life or safety may be in danger, the identifying information shall not be released. The division shall provide a method for confirming or certifying that a designee is acting on behalf of a subject;

            (5) Any alleged perpetrator named in the report, but the names of reporters shall not be furnished to persons in this category. Prior to the release of any identifying information, the division shall determine if the release of such identifying information may place a person's life or safety in danger. If the division makes the determination that a person's life or safety may be in danger, the identifying information shall not be released. However, the investigation reports will not be released to any alleged perpetrator with pending criminal charges arising out of the facts and circumstances named in the investigation records until an indictment is returned or an information filed or, one year after the division has notified in writing to the prosecuting attorney in the jurisdiction where the acts forming the basis of the report are alleged to have occurred, whichever occurs first. The prosecuting attorney may petition the circuit court of such jurisdiction to extend the one-year period for good cause shown, for such time as the court may determine is necessary to complete the investigation and to file any appropriate charges;

            (6) A grand jury, juvenile officer, prosecuting attorney, law enforcement officer involved in the investigation of child abuse or neglect, juvenile court or other court conducting abuse or neglect or child protective proceedings or child custody proceedings, and other federal, state and local government entities, or any agent of such entity, with a need for such information in order to carry out its responsibilities under the law to protect children from abuse or neglect;

            (7) Any person engaged in a bona fide research purpose, with the permission of the director; provided, however, that no information identifying the child named in the report as a victim or the reporters shall be made available to the researcher, unless the identifying information is essential to the research or evaluation and the child named in the report as a victim or, if the child is less than eighteen years of age, through the child's parent, or guardian provides written permission;

            (8) Any child-care facility; child-placing agency; residential-care facility, including group homes; juvenile courts; public or private elementary schools; public or private secondary schools; or any other public or private agency exercising temporary supervision over a child or providing or having care or custody of a child who may request an examination of the central registry from the division for all employees and volunteers or prospective employees and volunteers, who do or will provide services or care to children. Any agency or business recognized by the division or business which provides training and places or recommends people for employment or for volunteers in positions where they will provide services or care to children may request the division to provide an examination of the central registry. Such agency or business shall provide verification of its status as a recognized agency. Requests for examinations shall be made to the division director or the director's designee in writing by the chief administrative officer of the above homes, centers, public and private elementary schools, public and private secondary schools, agencies, or courts. The division shall respond in writing to that officer. The response shall include information pertaining to the nature and disposition of any report or reports of abuse or neglect revealed by the examination of the central registry. This response shall not include any identifying information regarding any person other than the alleged perpetrator of the abuse or neglect;

            (9) Any parent or legal guardian who inquires about a child abuse or neglect report involving a specific person or child-care facility who does or may provide services or care to a child of the person requesting the information. Request for examinations shall be made to the division director or the director's designee, in writing, by the parent or legal guardian of the child and shall be accompanied with a signed and notarized release form from the person who does or may provide care or services to the child. The notarized release form shall include the full name, date of birth and Social Security number of the person who does or may provide care or services to a child. The response shall include information pertaining to the nature and disposition of any report or reports of abuse or neglect revealed by the examination of the central registry. This response shall not include any identifying information regarding any person other than the alleged perpetrator of the abuse or neglect. The response shall be given within ten working days of the time it was received by the division;

            (10) Any person who inquires about a child abuse or neglect report involving a specific child-care facility, child-placing agency, residential-care facility, public and private elementary schools, public and private secondary schools, juvenile court or other state agency. The information available to these persons is limited to the nature and disposition of any report contained in the central registry and shall not include any identifying information pertaining to any person mentioned in the report;

            (11) Any state agency acting pursuant to statutes regarding a license of any person, institution, or agency which provides care for or services to children;

            (12) Any child fatality review panel established pursuant to section 210.192 or any state child fatality review panel established pursuant to section 210.195;

            (13) Any person who is a tenure-track or full-time research faculty member at an accredited institution of higher education engaged in scholarly research, with the permission of the director. Prior to the release of any identifying information, the director shall require the researcher to present a plan for maintaining the confidentiality of the identifying information. The researcher shall be prohibited from releasing the identifying information of individual cases.

            3. Only the following persons shall have access to records maintained by the division pursuant to section 210.152 for which the division has received a report of child abuse and neglect and which the division has determined that there is insufficient evidence or in which the division proceeded with the family assessment and services approach:

            (1) Appropriate staff of the division;

            (2) Any child named in the report as a victim, or a legal representative, or the parent or guardian of such person when such person is a minor, or is mentally ill or otherwise incompetent. The names or other identifying information of reporters shall not be furnished to persons in this category. Prior to the release of any identifying information, the division shall determine if the release of such identifying information may place a person's life or safety in danger. If the division makes the determination that a person's life or safety may be in danger, the identifying information shall not be released. The division shall provide for a method for confirming or certifying that a designee is acting on behalf of a subject;

            (3) Any alleged perpetrator named in the report, but the names of reporters shall not be furnished to persons in this category. Prior to the release of any identifying information, the division shall determine if the release of such identifying information may place a person's life or safety in danger. If the division makes the determination that a person's life or safety may be in danger, the identifying information shall not be released. However, the investigation reports will not be released to any alleged perpetrator with pending criminal charges arising out of the facts and circumstances named in the investigation records until an indictment is returned or an information filed or, one year after the division has notified in writing to the prosecuting attorney in the jurisdiction where the acts forming the basis of the report are alleged to have occurred, whichever occurs first. The prosecuting attorney may petition the circuit court of such jurisdiction to extend the one-year period for good cause shown, for such time as the court may determine is necessary to complete the investigation and to file any appropriate charges;

            (4) Any child fatality review panel established pursuant to section 210.192 or any state child fatality review panel established pursuant to section 210.195;

            (5) Appropriate criminal justice agency personnel or juvenile officer;

            (6) Multidisciplinary agency or individual including a physician or physician's designee who is providing services to the child or family, with the consent of the parent or guardian of the child or legal representative of the child;

            (7) Any person engaged in bona fide research purpose, with the permission of the director; provided, however, that no information identifying the subjects of the reports or the reporters shall be made available to the researcher, unless the identifying information is essential to the research or evaluation and the subject, or if a child, through the child's parent or guardian, provides written permission.

            4. Any person who knowingly violates the provisions of this section, or who permits or encourages the unauthorized dissemination of information contained in the information system or the central registry and in reports and records made pursuant to sections 210.109 to 210.183, shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor.

            5. Nothing in this section shall preclude the release of findings or information about cases which resulted in a child fatality or near fatality. Such release is at the sole discretion of the director of the department of social services, based upon a review of the potential harm to other children within the immediate family.

            210.152. 1. All identifying information, including telephone reports reported pursuant to section 210.145, relating to reports of abuse or neglect received by the division shall be retained by the division and removed from the records of the division as follows:

            (1) For investigation reports contained in the central registry, identifying information shall be retained by the division;

            (2) (a) For investigation reports initiated against a person required to report pursuant to section 210.115, where insufficient evidence of abuse or neglect is found by the division and where the division determines the allegation of abuse or neglect was made maliciously, for purposes of harassment or in retaliation for the filing of a report by a person required to report, identifying information shall be expunged by the division within forty-five days from the conclusion of the investigation;

            (b) For investigation reports, where insufficient evidence of abuse or neglect is found by the division and where the division determines the allegation of abuse or neglect was made maliciously, for purposes of harassment or in retaliation for the filing of a report, identifying information shall be expunged by the division within forty-five days from the conclusion of the investigation;

            (c) For investigation reports initiated by a person required to report under section 210.115, where insufficient evidence of abuse or neglect is found by the division, identifying information shall be retained for five years from the conclusion of the investigation. For all other investigation reports where insufficient evidence of abuse or neglect is found by the division, identifying information shall be retained for two years from the conclusion of the investigation.

Such reports shall include any exculpatory evidence known by the division, including exculpatory evidence obtained after the closing of the case. At the end of such time period, the identifying information shall be removed from the records of the division and destroyed;

            (3) For reports where the division uses the family assessment and services approach, identifying information shall be retained by the division;

            (4) For reports in which the division is unable to locate the child alleged to have been abused or neglected, identifying information shall be retained for ten years from the date of the report and then shall be removed from the records of the division.

            2. Within ninety days after receipt of a report of abuse or neglect that is investigated, the alleged perpetrator named in the report and the parents of the child named in the report, if the alleged perpetrator is not a parent, shall be notified in writing of any determination made by the division based on the investigation. The notice shall advise either:

            (1) That the division has determined by a probable cause finding prior to August 28, 2004, or by a preponderance of the evidence after August 28, 2004, that abuse or neglect exists and that the division shall retain all identifying information regarding the abuse or neglect; that such information shall remain confidential and will not be released except to law enforcement agencies, prosecuting or circuit attorneys, or as provided in section 210.150; that the alleged perpetrator has [sixty] thirty days from the date of receipt of the notice to seek reversal of the division's determination through a review by the child abuse and neglect review board as provided in subsection 3 of this section; or

            (2) That the division has not made a probable cause finding or determined by a preponderance of the evidence that abuse or neglect exists.

            3. Any person named in an investigation as a perpetrator who is aggrieved by a determination of abuse or neglect by the division as provided in this section may seek an administrative review by the child abuse and neglect review board pursuant to the provisions of section 210.153. Such request for review shall be made within [sixty] thirty days of notification of the division's decision under this section. In those cases where criminal charges arising out of facts of the investigation are pending, the request for review shall be made within [sixty]

thirty days from [the court's final disposition or dismissal of the charges] when an indictment is returned, an information filed, dismissal of the charges or after the division's release of its investigative report to the alleged perpetrator under this section.

            4. In any such action for administrative review, the child abuse and neglect review board shall sustain the division's determination if such determination was supported by evidence of probable cause prior to August 28, 2004, or is supported by a preponderance of the evidence after August 28, 2004, and is not against the weight of such evidence. The child abuse and neglect review board hearing shall be closed to all persons except the parties, their attorneys and those persons providing testimony on behalf of the parties.

            5. If the alleged perpetrator is aggrieved by the decision of the child abuse and neglect review board, the alleged perpetrator may seek de novo judicial review in the circuit court in the county in which the alleged perpetrator resides and in circuits with split venue, in the venue in which the alleged perpetrator resides, or in Cole County. If the alleged perpetrator is not a resident of the state, proper venue shall be in Cole County. The case may be assigned to the family court division where such a division has been established. The request for a judicial review shall be made within [sixty] thirty days of notification of the decision of the child abuse and neglect review board decision. In reviewing such decisions, the circuit court shall provide the alleged perpetrator the opportunity to appear and present testimony. The alleged perpetrator may subpoena any witnesses except the alleged victim or the reporter. However, the circuit court shall have the discretion to allow the parties to submit the case upon a stipulated record.

            6. In any such action for administrative review, the child abuse and neglect review board shall notify the child or the parent, guardian or legal representative of the child that a review has been requested.

            211.031. 1. Except as otherwise provided in this chapter, the juvenile court or the family court in circuits that have a family court as provided in sections 487.010 to 487.190, RSMo, shall have exclusive original jurisdiction in proceedings:

            (1) Involving any child or person seventeen years of age who may be a resident of or found within the county and who is alleged to be in need of care and treatment because:

            (a) The parents, or other persons legally responsible for the care and support of the child or person seventeen years of age, neglect or refuse to provide proper support, education which is required by law, medical, surgical or other care necessary for his or her well-being; except that reliance by a parent, guardian or custodian upon remedial treatment other than medical or surgical treatment for a child or person seventeen years of age shall not be construed as neglect when the treatment is recognized or permitted pursuant to the laws of this state;

            (b) The child or person seventeen years of age is otherwise without proper care, custody or support; or

            (c) The child or person seventeen years of age was living in a room, building or other structure at the time such dwelling was found by a court of competent jurisdiction to be a public nuisance pursuant to section 195.130, RSMo;

            (d) The child or person seventeen years of age is a child in need of mental health services and the parent, guardian or custodian is unable to afford or access appropriate mental health treatment or care for the child;

            (2) Involving any child who may be a resident of or found within the county and who is alleged to be in need of care and treatment because:

            (a) The child while subject to compulsory school attendance is repeatedly and without justification absent from school; or

            (b) The child disobeys the reasonable and lawful directions of his or her parents or other custodian and is beyond their control; or

            (c) The child is habitually absent from his or her home without sufficient cause, permission, or justification; or

            (d) The behavior or associations of the child are otherwise injurious to his or her welfare or to the welfare of others; or

            (e) The child is charged with an offense not classified as criminal, or with an offense applicable only to children; except that, the juvenile court shall not have jurisdiction over any child fifteen and one-half years of age who is alleged to have violated a state or municipal traffic ordinance or regulation, the violation of which does not constitute a felony, or any child who is alleged to have violated a state or municipal ordinance or regulation prohibiting possession or use of any tobacco product;

            (3) Involving any child who is alleged to have violated a state law or municipal ordinance, or any person who is alleged to have violated a state law or municipal ordinance prior to attaining the age of seventeen years, in which cases jurisdiction may be taken by the court of the circuit in which the child or person resides or may be found or in which the violation is alleged to have occurred; except that, the juvenile court shall not have jurisdiction over any child fifteen [and one-half] years of age who is alleged to have violated a state or municipal traffic ordinance or regulation, the violation of which does not constitute a felony, and except that the juvenile court shall have concurrent jurisdiction with the municipal court over any child who is alleged to have violated a municipal curfew ordinance, and except that the juvenile court shall have concurrent jurisdiction with the circuit court on any child who is alleged to have violated a state or municipal ordinance or regulation prohibiting possession or use of any tobacco product;

            (4) For the adoption of a person;

            (5) For the commitment of a child or person seventeen years of age to the guardianship of the department of social services as provided by law.

            2. Transfer of a matter, proceeding, jurisdiction or supervision for a child or person seventeen years of age who resides in a county of this state shall be made as follows:

            (1) Prior to the filing of a petition and upon request of any party or at the discretion of the juvenile officer, the matter in the interest of a child or person seventeen years of age may be transferred by the juvenile officer, with the prior consent of the juvenile officer of the receiving court, to the county of the child's residence or the residence of the person seventeen years of age for future action;

            (2) Upon the motion of any party or on its own motion prior to final disposition on the pending matter, the court in which a proceeding is commenced may transfer the proceeding of a child or person seventeen years of age to the court located in the county of the child's residence or the residence of the person seventeen years of age, or the county in which the offense pursuant to subdivision (3) of subsection 1 of this section is alleged to have occurred for further action;

            (3) Upon motion of any party or on its own motion, the court in which jurisdiction has been taken pursuant to subsection 1 of this section may at any time thereafter transfer jurisdiction of a child or person seventeen years of age to the court located in the county of the child's residence or the residence of the person seventeen years of age for further action with the prior consent of the receiving court;

            (4) Upon motion of any party or upon its own motion at any time following a judgment of disposition or treatment pursuant to section 211.181, the court having jurisdiction of the cause may place the child or person seventeen years of age under the supervision of another juvenile court within or without the state pursuant to section 210.570, RSMo, with the consent of the receiving court;

            (5) Upon motion of any child or person seventeen years of age or his or her parent, the court having jurisdiction shall grant one change of judge pursuant to Missouri Supreme Court Rules;

            (6) Upon the transfer of any matter, proceeding, jurisdiction or supervision of a child or person seventeen years of age, certified copies of all legal and social documents and records pertaining to the case on file with the clerk of the transferring juvenile court shall accompany the transfer.

            3. In any proceeding involving any child or person seventeen years of age taken into custody in a county other than the county of the child's residence or the residence of a person seventeen years of age, the juvenile court of the county of the child's residence or the residence of a person seventeen years of age shall be notified of such taking into custody within seventy-two hours.

            4. When an investigation by a juvenile officer pursuant to this section reveals that the only basis for action involves an alleged violation of section 167.031, RSMo, involving a child who alleges to be home schooled, the juvenile officer shall contact a parent or parents of such child to verify that the child is being home schooled and not in violation of section 167.031, RSMo, before making a report of such a violation. Any report of a violation of section 167.031, RSMo, made by a juvenile officer regarding a child who is being home schooled shall be made to the prosecuting attorney of the county where the child legally resides.

            288.034. 1. "Employment" means service, including service in interstate commerce, performed for wages or under any contract of hire, written or oral, express or implied, and notwithstanding any other provisions of this section, service with respect to which a tax is required to be paid under any federal unemployment tax law imposing a tax against which credit may be taken for contributions required to be paid into a state unemployment fund or which, as a condition for full tax credit against the tax imposed by the Federal Unemployment Tax Act, is required to be covered under this law.

            2. The term "employment" shall include an individual's entire service, performed within or both within and without this state if:

            (1) The service is localized in this state; or

            (2) The service is not localized in any state but some of the service is performed in this state and the base of operations, or, if there is no base of operations, then the place from which such service is directed or controlled, is in this state; or the base of operations or place from which such service is directed or controlled is not in any state in which some part of the service is performed but the individual's residence is in this state.

            3. Service performed by an individual for wages shall be deemed to be employment subject to this law:

            (1) If covered by an election filed and approved pursuant to subdivision (2) of subsection 3 of section 288.080;

            (2) If covered by an arrangement pursuant to section 288.340 between the division and the agency charged with the administration of any other state or federal unemployment insurance law, pursuant to which all services performed by an individual for an employing unit are deemed to be performed entirely within this state.

            4. Service shall be deemed to be localized within a state if the service is performed entirely within such state; or the service is performed both within and without such state, but the service performed without such state is incidental to the individual's service within the state; for example, is temporary or transitory in nature or consists of isolated transactions.

            5. Service performed by an individual for remuneration shall be deemed to be employment subject to this law unless it is shown to the satisfaction of the division that such services were performed by an independent contractor. In determining the existence of the independent contractor relationship, the common law of agency right to control shall be applied. The common law of agency right to control test shall include but not be limited to: if the alleged employer retains the right to control the manner and means by which the results are to be accomplished, the individual who performs the service is an employee. If only the results are controlled, the individual performing the service is an independent contractor.

            6. The term "employment" shall include service performed for wages as an agent-driver or commission-driver engaged in distributing meat products, vegetable products, fruit products, bakery products, beverages (other than milk), or laundry or dry-cleaning services, for his or her principal; or as a traveling or city salesman, other than as an agent-driver or commission-driver, engaged upon a full-time basis in the solicitation on behalf of, and the transmission to, his or her principal (except for sideline sales activities on behalf of some other person) of orders from wholesalers, retailers, contractors, or operators of hotels, restaurants, or other similar establishments for merchandise for resale or supplies for use in their business operations, provided:

            (1) The contract of service contemplates that substantially all of the services are to be performed personally by such individual; and

            (2) The individual does not have a substantial investment in facilities used in connection with the performance of the services (other than in facilities for transportation); and

            (3) The services are not in the nature of a single transaction that is not part of a continuing relationship with the person for whom the services are performed.

            7. Service performed by an individual in the employ of this state or any political subdivision thereof or any instrumentality of any one or more of the foregoing which is wholly owned by this state and one or more other states or political subdivisions, or any service performed in the employ of any instrumentality of this state or of any political subdivision thereof, and one or more other states or political subdivisions, provided that such service is excluded from "employment" as defined in the Federal Unemployment Tax Act by Section 3306(c)(7) of that act and is not excluded from "employment" pursuant to subsection 9 of this section, shall be "employment" subject to this law.

            8. Service performed by an individual in the employ of a corporation or any community chest, fund, or foundation organized and operated exclusively for religious, charitable, scientific, testing for public safety, literary, or educational purposes, or for the prevention of cruelty to children or animals, no part of the net earnings of which inures to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual, or other organization described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code which is exempt from income tax under Section 501(a) of that code if the organization had four or more individuals in employment for some portion of a day in each of twenty different weeks whether or not such weeks were consecutive within a calendar year regardless of whether they were employed at the same moment of time shall be "employment" subject to this law.

            9. For the purposes of subsections 7 and 8 of this section, the term "employment" does not apply to service performed:

            (1) In the employ of a church or convention or association of churches, or an organization which is operated primarily for religious purposes and which is operated, supervised, controlled, or principally supported by a church or convention or association of churches; or

            (2) By a duly ordained, commissioned, or licensed minister of a church in the exercise of such minister's ministry or by a member of a religious order in the exercise of duties required by such order; or

            (3) In the employ of a governmental entity referred to in subdivision (3) of subsection 1 of section 288.032 if such service is performed by an individual in the exercise of duties:

            (a) As an elected official;

            (b) As a member of a legislative body, or a member of the judiciary, of a state or political subdivision;

            (c) As a member of the state national guard or air national guard;

            (d) As an employee serving on a temporary basis in case of fire, storm, snow, earthquake, flood or similar emergency;

            (e) In a position which, under or pursuant to the laws of this state, is designated as (i) a major nontenured policy-making or advisory position, or (ii) a policy-making or advisory position the performance of the duties of which ordinarily does not require more than eight hours per week; or

            (4) In a facility conducted for the purpose of carrying out a program of rehabilitation for individuals whose earning capacity is impaired by age or physical or mental deficiency or injury or providing remunerative work for individuals who because of their impaired physical or mental capacity cannot be readily absorbed in the competitive labor market, by an individual receiving such rehabilitation or remunerative work; or

            (5) As part of an unemployment work-relief or work-training program assisted or financed in whole or in part by any federal agency or an agency of a state or political subdivision thereof, by an individual receiving such work relief or work training; or

            (6) By an inmate of a custodial or penal institution; or

            (7) In the employ of a school, college, or university, if such service is performed (i) by a student who is enrolled and is regularly attending classes at such school, college, or university, or (ii) by the spouse of such a student, if such spouse is advised, at the time such spouse commences to perform such service, that (I) the employment of such spouse to perform such service is provided under a program to provide financial assistance to such student by such school, college, or university, and (II) such employment will not be covered by any program of unemployment insurance.

            10. The term "employment" shall include the service of an individual who is a citizen of the United States, performed outside the United States (except in Canada), if:

            (1) The employer's principal place of business in the United States is located in this state; or

            (2) The employer has no place of business in the United States, but:

            (a) The employer is an individual who is a resident of this state; or

            (b) The employer is a corporation which is organized under the laws of this state; or

            (c) The employer is a partnership or a trust and the number of the partners or trustees who are residents of this state is greater than the number who are residents of any one other state; or

            (3) None of the criteria of subdivisions (1) and (2) of this subsection is met but the employer has elected coverage in this state or, the employer having failed to elect coverage in any state, the individual has filed a claim for benefits, based on such service, under the law of this state;

            (4) As used in this subsection and in subsection 11 of this section, the term "United States" includes the states, the District of Columbia and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico.

            11. An "American employer", for the purposes of subsection 10 of this section, means a person who is:

            (1) An individual who is a resident of the United States; or

            (2) A partnership, if two-thirds or more of the partners are residents of the United States; or

            (3) A trust, if all of the trustees are residents of the United States; or

            (4) A corporation organized under the laws of the United States or of any state.

            12. The term "employment" shall not include:

            (1) Service performed by an individual in agricultural labor;

            (a) For the purposes of this subdivision, the term "agricultural labor" means remunerated service performed:

            a. On a farm, in the employ of any person, in connection with cultivating the soil, or in connection with raising or harvesting any agricultural or horticultural commodity, including the raising, shearing, feeding, caring for, training, and management of livestock, bees, poultry, and furbearing animals and wildlife;

            b. In the employ of the owner or tenant or other operator of a farm, in connection with the operation, management, conservation, improvement, or maintenance of such farm and its tools and equipment, or in salvaging timber or clearing land of brush and other debris left by a hurricane, if the major part of such service is performed on a farm;

            c. In connection with the production or harvesting of any commodity defined as an agricultural commodity in Section 15(g) of the Federal Agricultural Marketing Act, as amended (46 Stat. 1550, Sec. 3; 12 U.S.C. 1441j), or in connection with the ginning of cotton, or in connection with the operation or maintenance of ditches, canals, reservoirs, or waterways, not owned or operated for profit, used exclusively for supplying and storing water for farming purposes;

            d. i. In the employ of the operator of a farm in handling, planting, drying, packing, packaging, processing, freezing, grading, storing, or delivering to storage or to market or to a carrier for transportation to market, in its unmanufactured state, any agricultural or horticultural commodity; but only if such operator produced more than one-half of the commodity with respect to which such service is performed;

            ii. In the employ of a group of operators of farms (or a cooperative organization of which such operators are members) in the performance of services described in item i of this subparagraph, but only if such operators produced more than one-half of the commodity with respect to which such service is performed;

            iii. The provisions of items i and ii of this subparagraph shall not be deemed to be applicable with respect to service performed in connection with commercial canning or commercial freezing or in connection with any agricultural or horticultural commodity after its delivery to a terminal market for distribution for consumption; or

            e. On a farm operated for profit if such service is not in the course of the employer's trade or business. As used in this paragraph, the term "farm" includes stock, dairy, poultry, fruit, furbearing animals, and truck farms, plantations, ranches, nurseries, ranges, greenhouses or other similar structures, used primarily for the raising of agricultural or horticultural commodities, and orchards;

            (b) The term "employment" shall include service performed after December 31, 1977, by an individual in agricultural labor as defined in paragraph (a) of this subdivision when such service is performed for a person who, during any calendar quarter, paid remuneration in cash of twenty thousand dollars or more to individuals employed in agricultural labor or for some portion of a day in a calendar year in each of twenty different calendar weeks, whether or not such weeks were consecutive, employed in agricultural labor ten or more individuals, regardless of whether they were employed at the same moment of time;

            (c) For the purposes of this subsection any individual who is a member of a crew furnished by a crew leader to perform service in agricultural labor for any other person shall be considered as employed by such crew leader:

            a. If such crew leader holds a valid certificate of registration under the Farm Labor Contractor Registration Act of 1963; or substantially all the members of such crew operate or maintain tractors, mechanized harvesting or crop-dusting equipment, or any other mechanized equipment, which is provided by such crew leader; and

            b. If such individual is not in employment by such other person;

            c. If any individual is furnished by a crew leader to perform service in agricultural labor for any other person and that individual is not in the employment of the crew leader:

            i. Such other person and not the crew leader shall be treated as the employer of such individual; and

            ii. Such other person shall be treated as having paid cash remuneration to such individual in an amount equal to the amount of cash remuneration paid to such individual by the crew leader (either on his or her own behalf or on behalf of such other person) for the service in agricultural labor performed for such other person;

            d. For the purposes of this subsection, the term "crew leader" means an individual who:

            i. Furnishes individuals to perform service in agricultural labor for any other person;

            ii. Pays (either on his or her own behalf or on behalf of such other person) the individuals so furnished by him or her for the service in agricultural labor performed by them; and

            iii. Has not entered into a written agreement with such other person under which such individual is designated as in employment by such other person;

            (2) Domestic service in a private home except as provided in subsection 13 of this section;

            (3) Service performed by an individual under the age of eighteen years in the delivery or distribution of newspapers or shopping news but shall not include delivery or distribution to any point for subsequent delivery or distribution;

            (4) Service performed by an individual in, and at the time of, the sale of newspapers or magazines to ultimate consumers under an arrangement under which the newspapers or magazines are to be sold by him or her at a fixed price, his or her compensation being based on the retention of the excess of such price over the amount at which the newspapers or magazines are charged to him or her, whether or not he or she is guaranteed a minimum amount of compensation for such service, or is entitled to be credited with the unsold newspapers or magazines turned back;

            (5) Service performed by an individual in the employ of his or her son, daughter, or spouse, and service performed by a child under the age of twenty-one in the employ of his or her father or mother;

            (6) Except as otherwise provided in this law, service performed in the employ of a corporation, community chest, fund or foundation, organized and operated exclusively for religious, charitable, scientific, literary, or educational purposes, or for the prevention of cruelty to children or animals, no part of the net earnings of which inures to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual;

            (7) Services with respect to which unemployment insurance is payable under an unemployment insurance system established by an act of Congress;

            (8) Service performed in the employ of a foreign government;

            (9) Service performed in the employ of an instrumentality wholly owned by a foreign government:

            (a) If the service is of a character similar to that performed in foreign countries by employees of the United States government or of an instrumentality thereof; and

            (b) If the division finds that the foreign government, with respect to whose instrumentality exemption is claimed, grants an equivalent exemption with respect to similar service performed in the foreign country by employees of the United States government and of instrumentalities thereof. The certification of the United States Secretary of State to the United States Secretary of Treasury shall constitute prima facie evidence of such equivalent exemption;

            (10) Service covered by an arrangement between the division and the agency charged with the administration of any other state or federal unemployment insurance law pursuant to which all services performed by an individual for an employing unit during the period covered by the employing unit's approved election are deemed to be performed entirely within the jurisdiction of such other state or federal agency;

            (11) Service performed in any calendar quarter in the employ of a school, college or university not otherwise excluded, if such service is performed by a student who is enrolled and regularly attending classes at such school, college, or university, and the remuneration for such service does not exceed fifty dollars (exclusive of board, room, and tuition);

            (12) Service performed by an individual for a person as a licensed insurance agent, a licensed insurance broker, or an insurance solicitor, if all such service performed by such individual for such person is performed for remuneration solely by way of commissions;

            (13) Domestic service performed in the employ of a local college club or of a local chapter of a college fraternity or sorority, except as provided in subsection 13 of this section;

            (14) Services performed after March 31, 1982, in programs authorized and funded by the Comprehensive Employment and Training Act by participants of such programs, except those programs with respect to which unemployment insurance coverage is required by the Comprehensive Employment and Training Act or regulations issued pursuant thereto;

            (15) Service performed by an individual who is enrolled at a nonprofit or public educational institution which normally maintains a regular faculty and curriculum and normally has a regularly organized body of students in attendance at the place where its educational activities are carried on, as a student in a full-time program, taken for credit at such institution, which combines academic instruction with work experience, if such service is an integral part of such program, and such institution has so certified to the employer; except, that this subdivision shall not apply to service performed in a program established for or on behalf of an employer or group of employers;

            (16) Services performed by a licensed real estate salesperson or licensed real estate broker if [at least eighty percent] substantially all of the remuneration, whether or not paid in cash, for the services performed, rather than to the number of hours worked, is directly related to sales or other output, including the performance of services, performed pursuant to a written contract between such individual and the person for whom the services are performed and such contract provides that the individual will not be treated as an employee with respect to such services for federal tax purposes;

            (17) Services performed as a direct seller who is engaged in the trade or business of the delivering or distribution of newspapers or shopping news, including any services directly related to such trade or business, or services performed as a direct seller who is engaged in the trade or business of selling, or soliciting the sale of, consumer products in the home or otherwise than in, or affiliated with, a permanent, fixed retail establishment, if eighty percent or more of the remuneration, whether or not paid in cash, for the services performed rather than the number of hours worked is directly related to sales performed pursuant to a written contract between such direct seller and the person for whom the services are performed, and such contract provides that the individual will not be treated as an employee with respect to such services for federal tax purposes;

            (18) Services performed as a volunteer research subject who is paid on a per study basis for scientific, medical or drug-related testing for any organization other than one described in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code or any governmental entity.

            13. The term "employment" shall include domestic service as defined in subdivisions (2) and (13) of subsection 12 of this section performed after December 31, 1977, if the employing unit for which such service is performed paid cash wages of one thousand dollars or more for such services in any calendar quarter after December 31, 1977.

            14. The term "employment" shall include or exclude the entire service of an individual for an employing unit during a pay period in which such individual's services are not all excluded under the foregoing provisions, on the following basis: if the services performed during one-half or more of any pay period constitute employment as otherwise defined in this law, all the services performed during such period shall be deemed to be employment; but if the services performed during more than one-half of any such pay period do not constitute employment as otherwise defined in this law, then none of the services for such period shall be deemed to be employment. (As used in this subsection, the term "pay period" means a period of not more than thirty-one consecutive days for which a payment of remuneration is ordinarily made to the individual by the employing unit employing such individual.) This subsection shall not be applicable with respect to service performed in a pay period where any such service is excluded pursuant to subdivision (8) of subsection 12 of this section.

            15. The term "employment" shall not include the services of a full-time student who performed such services in the employ of an organized summer camp for less than thirteen calendar weeks in such calendar year.

            16. For the purpose of subsection 15 of this section, an individual shall be treated as a full-time student for any period:

            (1) During which the individual is enrolled as a full-time student at an educational institution; or

            (2) Which is between academic years or terms if:

            (a) The individual was enrolled as a full-time student at an educational institution for the immediately preceding academic year or term; and

            (b) There is a reasonable assurance that the individual will be so enrolled for the immediately succeeding academic year or term after the period described in paragraph (a) of this subdivision.

            17. For the purpose of subsection 15 of this section, an "organized summer camp" shall mean a summer camp which:

            (1) Did not operate for more than seven months in the calendar year and did not operate for more than seven months in the preceding calendar year; or

            (2) Had average gross receipts for any six months in the preceding calendar year which were not more than thirty-three and one-third percent of its average gross receipts for the other six months in the preceding calendar year.

            18. The term "employment" shall not mean service performed by a remodeling salesperson acting as an independent contractor; however, if the federal Internal Revenue Service determines that a contractual relationship between a direct provider and an individual acting as an independent contractor pursuant to the provisions of this subsection is in fact an employer-employee relationship for the purposes of federal law, then that relationship shall be considered as an employer-employee relationship for the purposes of this chapter.

            301.146. 1. Any federal, state, county or municipal law enforcement or public safety agency, or those persons vested by article V, section 1 of the Constitution of Missouri with the judicial power of the state and those persons vested by Article III of the Constitution of the United States with the judicial power of the United States, the members of the federal judiciary, may request the issuance of special license plates and drivers licenses. Upon receipt of such a request, the director of revenue shall determine whether or not the special license plates and drivers licenses are to be used for a legitimate law enforcement or public safety purpose and if he so determines then the director of revenue shall issue the special license plates and drivers licenses subject to such conditions as he shall decide, in a form prescribed by the advisory committee established in section 301.129, except that such license plates shall be made with fully reflective material with a common color scheme and design, shall be clearly visible at night, and shall be aesthetically attractive, as prescribed by section 301.130. All decisions of the director of revenue relating to the special law enforcement or public safety license plates or drivers licenses shall be final.

            2. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, records pertaining to the request for, issuance of, retention of or disposal of special license plates and drivers licenses issued for law enforcement or public safety purposes as provided for in this section shall not be subject to public disclosure and shall be held by the department of revenue in such a way as to keep these records confidential.

            306.532. The certificate of title for a new outboard motor shall designate the year the outboard motor was manufactured as the "Year Manufactured" and shall further designate the year the dealer received the new outboard motor from the manufacturer as the "Model Year-NEW". This section shall become effective on January 1, 2011.

            339.010. 1. A "real estate broker" is any person, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation, foreign or domestic who, for another, and for a compensation or valuable consideration, does, or attempts to do, any or all of the following:

            (1) Sells, exchanges, purchases, rents, or leases real estate;

            (2) Offers to sell, exchange, purchase, rent or lease real estate;

            (3) Negotiates or offers or agrees to negotiate the sale, exchange, purchase, rental or leasing of real estate;

            (4) Lists or offers or agrees to list real estate for sale, lease, rental or exchange;

            (5) Buys, sells, offers to buy or sell or otherwise deals in options on real estate or improvements thereon;

            (6) Advertises or holds himself or herself out as a licensed real estate broker while engaged in the business of buying, selling, exchanging, renting, or leasing real estate;

            (7) Assists or directs in the procuring of prospects, calculated to result in the sale, exchange, leasing or rental of real estate;

            (8) Assists or directs in the negotiation of any transaction calculated or intended to result in the sale, exchange, leasing or rental of real estate;

            (9) Engages in the business of charging to an unlicensed person an advance fee in connection with any contract whereby the real estate broker undertakes to promote the sale of that person's real estate through its listing in a publication issued for such purpose intended to be circulated to the general public;

            (10) Performs any of the foregoing acts on behalf of the owner of real estate, or interest therein, or improvements affixed thereon, for compensation.

            2. A "real estate salesperson" is any person, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation, domestic or foreign who for a compensation or valuable consideration becomes associated, either as an independent contractor or employee, either directly or indirectly, with a real estate broker to do any of the things above mentioned. The provisions of sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860 shall not be construed to deny a real estate salesperson who is compensated solely by commission the right to be associated with a broker as an independent contractor.

            3. A "real estate broker-salesperson" is any person, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation, domestic or foreign, who has a real estate broker license in good standing, who for a compensation or valuable consideration becomes associated, either as an independent contractor or employee, either directly or indirectly, with a real estate broker to do any of the things above mentioned. A real estate broker-salesperson may not also operate as a real estate broker. The provisions of sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860 shall not be construed to deny a real estate salesperson who is compensated solely by commission the right to be associated with a broker as an independent contractor.

            [3.] 4. The term "commission" as used in sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860 means the Missouri real estate commission.

            [4.] 5. "Real estate" for the purposes of sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860 shall mean, and include, leaseholds, as well as any other interest or estate in land, whether corporeal, incorporeal, freehold or nonfreehold, and the real estate is situated in this state.

            [5.] 6. "Advertising" shall mean any communication, whether oral or written, between a licensee or other entity acting on behalf of one or more licensees and the public, and shall include, but not be limited to, business cards, signs, insignias, letterheads, radio, television, newspaper and magazine ads, Internet advertising, websites, display or group ads in telephone directories, and billboards.

            [6.] 7. The provisions of sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860 shall not apply to:

             (1) Any person, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation who as owner, lessor, or lessee shall perform any of the acts described in subsection 1 of this section with reference to property owned or leased by them, or to the regular employees thereof;

(2) Any licensed attorney-at-law;

(3) An auctioneer employed by the owner of the property;

            (4) Any person acting as receiver, trustee in bankruptcy, administrator, executor, or guardian or while acting under a court order or under the authority of a will, trust instrument or deed of trust or as a witness in any judicial proceeding or other proceeding conducted by the state or any governmental subdivision or agency;

            (5) Any person employed or retained to manage real property by, for, or on behalf of the agent or the owner of any real estate shall be exempt from holding a license, if the person is limited to one or more of the following activities:

            (a) Delivery of a lease application, a lease, or any amendment thereof, to any person;

            (b) Receiving a lease application, lease, or amendment thereof, a security deposit, rental payment, or any related payment, for delivery to, and made payable to, a broker or owner;

            (c) Showing a rental unit to any person, as long as the employee is acting under the direct instructions of the broker or owner, including the execution of leases or rental agreements;

            (d) Conveying information prepared by a broker or owner about a rental unit, a lease, an application for lease, or the status of a security deposit, or the payment of rent, by any person;

            (e) Assisting in the performance of brokers' or owners' functions, administrative, clerical or maintenance tasks;

            (f) If the person described in this section is employed or retained by, for, or on behalf of a real estate broker, the real estate broker shall be subject to discipline under this chapter for any conduct of the person that violates this chapter or the regulations promulgated thereunder;

            (6) Any officer or employee of a federal agency or the state government or any political subdivision thereof performing official duties;

            (7) Railroads and other public utilities regulated by the state of Missouri, or their subsidiaries or affiliated corporations, or to the officers or regular employees thereof, unless performance of any of the acts described in subsection 1 of this section is in connection with the sale, purchase, lease or other disposition of real estate or investment therein unrelated to the principal business activity of such railroad or other public utility or affiliated or subsidiary corporation thereof;

            (8) Any bank, trust company, savings and loan association, credit union, insurance company, mortgage banker, or farm loan association organized under the laws of this state or of the United States when engaged in the transaction of business on its own behalf and not for others;

            (9) Any newspaper, magazine, periodical, Internet site, Internet communications, or any form of communications regulated or licensed by the Federal Communications Commission or any successor agency or commission whereby the advertising of real estate is incidental to its operation;

            (10) Any developer selling Missouri land owned by the developer;

            (11) Any employee acting on behalf of a nonprofit community, or regional economic development association, agency or corporation which has as its principal purpose the general promotion and economic advancement of the community at large, provided that such entity:

            (a) Does not offer such property for sale, lease, rental or exchange on behalf of another person or entity;

            (b) Does not list or offer or agree to list such property for sale, lease, rental or exchange; or

            (c) Receives no fee, commission or compensation, either monetary or in kind, that is directly related to sale or disposal of such properties. An economic developer's normal annual compensation shall be excluded from consideration as commission or compensation related to sale or disposal of such properties; or

            (12) Any neighborhood association, as that term is defined in section 441.500, RSMo, that without compensation, either monetary or in kind, provides to prospective purchasers or lessors of property the asking price, location, and contact information regarding properties in and near the association's neighborhood, including any publication of such information in a newsletter, Internet site, or other medium.

            339.020. It shall be unlawful for any person, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation, foreign or domestic, to act as a real estate broker, real estate broker-salesperson, or real estate salesperson, or to advertise or assume to act as such without a license first procured from the commission.

            339.030. A corporation, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, professional corporation, or association shall be granted a broker’s, broker-salesperson’s, or salesperson’s license when the required fee is paid and:

            (1) For a real estate broker individual licenses have been issued to every member, general partner, associate, manager, member, or officer of such partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation who actively participates in its brokerage business and to every person, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, professional corporation, or corporation who acts as a salesperson for such partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation [and when the required fee is paid.] , or

            (2) For a real estate broker-salesperson when an individual broker-salesperson license has been issued to every general partner, associate, manager, member, or officers of such partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation who acts as a broker-salesperson, and individual salesperson licenses have been issued to all general partners, associates, managers, members, or officers of such partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation who act as salesperson, or

            (3) For a real estate salesperson when individual salesperson licenses have been issued to all general partners, associates, managers, members, or officers of such partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, association, professional corporation, or corporation who act as a salesperson.

            339.040. 1. Licenses shall be granted only to persons who present, and corporations, associations, [or] partnerships, limited partnerships and limited liability companies whose officers, professional corporations, managers, associates, [or] general partners, or members who actively participate in such entity’s brokerage, broker-salesperson, or salesperson business present, satisfactory proof to the commission that they:

             (1) Are persons of good moral character; and

            (2) Bear a good reputation for honesty, integrity, and fair dealing; and

             (3) Are competent to transact the business of a broker or salesperson in such a manner as to safeguard the interest of the public.

             2. In order to determine an applicant's qualifications to receive a license under sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860, the commission shall hold oral or written examinations at such times and places as the commission may determine.

             3. Each applicant for a broker or salesperson license shall be at least eighteen years of age and shall pay the broker examination fee or the salesperson examination fee.

             4. Each applicant for a broker license shall be required to have satisfactorily completed the salesperson license examination prescribed by the commission. For the purposes of this section only, the commission may permit a person who is not associated with a licensed broker to take the salesperson examination.

            5. Each application for a broker license shall include a certificate from the applicant's broker or brokers that the applicant has been actively engaged in the real estate business as a licensed salesperson for at least two years immediately preceding the date of application, and shall include a certificate from a school accredited by the commission under the provisions of section 339.045 that the applicant has, within six months prior to the date of application, successfully completed the prescribed broker curriculum or broker correspondence course offered by such school, except that the commission may waive all or part of the requirements set forth in this subsection when an applicant presents proof of other educational background or experience acceptable to the commission. Each application for a broker-salesperson license shall include evidence of the current broker license held by the applicant.

             6. Each application for a salesperson license shall include a certificate from a school accredited by the commission under the provisions of section 339.045 that the applicant has, within six months prior to the date of application, successfully completed the prescribed salesperson curriculum or salesperson correspondence course offered by such school, except that the commission may waive all or part of the educational requirements set forth in this subsection when an applicant presents proof of other educational background or experience acceptable to the commission.

            7. The commission may issue a temporary work permit pending final review and printing of the license to an applicant who appears to have satisfied the requirements for licenses. The commission may, at its discretion, withdraw the work permit at any time.

             8. Every active broker, broker-salesperson, salesperson, officer, manager, general partner, member or associate shall provide upon request to the commission evidence that during the two years preceding he or she has completed twelve hours of real estate instruction in courses approved by the commission. The commission may, by rule and regulation, provide for individual waiver of this requirement.

             9. Each entity that provides continuing education required under the provisions of subsection 8 of this section may make available instruction courses that the entity conducts through means of distance delivery. The commission shall by rule set standards for such courses. The commission may by regulation require the individual completing such distance-delivered course to complete an examination on the contents of the course. Such examination shall be designed to ensure that the licensee displays adequate knowledge of the subject matter of the course, and shall be designed by the entity producing the course and approved by the commission.

             10. In the event of the death or incapacity of a licensed broker, or of one or more of the licensed general partners, officers, managers, members or associates of a real estate partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, professional corporation, corporation, or association whereby the affairs of the broker, partnership, [or] limited partnership, limited liablity company, professional corporation, corporation, or association cannot be carried on, the commission may issue, without examination or fee, to the legal representative or representatives of the deceased or incapacitated individual, or to another individual approved by the commission, a temporary broker license which shall authorize such individual to continue for a period to be designated by the commission to transact business for the sole purpose of winding up the affairs of the broker, partnership [or] , limited partnership, limited liability company, professional corporation, corporation, or association under the supervision of the commission.

            339.080. 1. The commission may refuse to examine or issue a license to any person known by it to be guilty of any of the acts or practices specified in subsection 2 of section 339.100, or to any person previously licensed whose license has been revoked, or may refuse to issue a license to any association [or] , partnership, corporation, professional corporation, limited partnership, or limited liability company of which such person is a [member] manager, officer or general partner, or in which as a member, partner or associates such person has or exercises a controlling interest either directly or indirectly, or to any corporation of which such person is an officer or in which as a stockholder such person has or exercises a controlling interest either directly or indirectly.

            2. Any person denied a license or the right to be examined shall be so notified by the commission in writing stating the reasons for denial or refusal to examine and informing the person so denied of his right to file a complaint with the administrative hearing commission in accordance with the applicable provisions of sections 621.015 to 621.198, RSMo, and the rules promulgated thereunder. All notices hereunder shall be sent by registered or certified mail to the last known address of the applicant.

            339.110. The commission may refuse to issue a license to any person who is known by it to have been found guilty of forgery, embezzlement, obtaining money under false pretenses, extortion, criminal conspiracy to defraud, or other like offense, or to any association [or] , partnership, corporation, professional corporation, limited partnership, or limited liability company of which [the person is a member] such person is a manager, officer or general partner, or in which as a member, partner or associate such person has or exercises a controlling interest either directly or indirectly, or to any corporation of which [the] such person is an officer or in which as a stockholder [the] such person has or exercises a controlling interest either directly or indirectly.

            339.160. No person, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, professional corporations, corporation[,] or association engaged within this state in the business or acting in the capacity of a real estate broker, real estate broker-salesperson or real estate salesperson shall bring or maintain an action in any court in this state for the recovery of compensation for services rendered in the buying, selling, exchanging, leasing, renting or negotiating a loan upon any real estate without alleging and proving that such person, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company, professional corporation, corporation[,] or association, or its member, manager, officer, general partner or associate (as applicable), was a licensed real estate broker, broker-salesperson or salesperson at the time when the alleged cause of action arose.

            339.170. Any person or corporation, professional corporation, partnership, limited partnership, limited liability company or association knowingly violating any provision of sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860 shall be guilty of a class B misdemeanor. Any officer or agent of a corporation, or any member, manager, officer, associate, general partner or agent of a partnership [or] , association, corporation, professional corporation, limited partnership, or limited liability company who actively participate in such entity’s brokerage business, who shall knowingly and personally participate in or be an accessory to any violation of sections 339.010 to 339.180 and sections 339.710 to 339.860, shall be guilty of a class B misdemeanor. This section shall not be construed to release any person from civil liability or criminal prosecution under any other law of this state. The commission may cause complaint to be filed for violation of section 339.020 in any court of competent jurisdiction, and perform such other acts as may be necessary to enforce the provisions hereof.

            339.710. For purposes of sections 339.010 to 339.180, and sections 339.710 to 339.860, the following terms mean:

            (1) "Adverse material fact", a fact related to the property not reasonably ascertainable or known to a party which negatively affects the value of the property. Adverse material facts may include matters pertaining to:

            (a) Environmental hazards affecting the property;

             (b) Physical condition of the property which adversely affects the value of the property;

            (c) Material defects in the property;

            (d) Material defects in the title to the property;

            (e) Material limitation of the party's ability to perform under the terms of the contract;

             (2) "Affiliated licensee", any broker or salesperson who works under the supervision of a designated broker;

             (3) "Agent", a person or entity acting pursuant to the provisions of this chapter;

            (4) "Broker disclosure form", the current form prescribed by the commission for presentation to a seller, landlord, buyer or tenant who has not entered into a written agreement for brokerage services;

            (5) "Brokerage relationship", the relationship created between a designated broker, the broker's affiliated licensees, and a client relating to the performance of services of a broker as defined in section 339.010, and sections 339.710 to 339.860. If a designated broker makes an appointment of an affiliated licensee or affiliated licensees pursuant to section 339.820, such brokerage relationships are created between the appointed licensee or licensees and the client. Nothing in this subdivision shall:

             (a) Alleviate the designated broker from duties of supervision of the appointed licensee or licensees; or

             (b) Alter the designated broker's underlying contractual agreement with the client;

             (6) "Client", a seller, landlord, buyer, or tenant who has entered into a brokerage relationship with a licensee pursuant to sections 339.710 to 339.860;

             (7) "Commercial real estate", any real estate other than real estate containing one to four residential units or real estate classified as agricultural and horticultural property for assessment purposes pursuant to section 137.016, RSMo. Commercial real estate does not include single family residential units including condominiums, townhouses, or homes in a subdivision when that real estate is sold, leased, or otherwise conveyed on a unit-by-unit basis even though the units may be part of a larger building or parcel of real estate containing more than four units;

             (8) "Commission", the Missouri real estate commission;

             (9) "Confidential information", information obtained by the licensee from the client and designated as confidential by the client, information made confidential by sections 339.710 to 339.860 or any other statute or regulation, or written instructions from the client unless the information is made public or becomes public by the words or conduct of the client to whom the information pertains or by a source other than the licensee;

            (10) "Customer", an actual or potential seller, landlord, buyer, or tenant in a real estate transaction in which a licensee is involved but who has not entered into a brokerage relationship with the licensee;

            (11) "Designated agent", a licensee named by a designated broker as the limited agent of a client as provided for in section 339.820;

             (12) "Designated broker", any individual licensed as a broker who is operating pursuant to the definition of real estate broker as defined in section 339.010, or any individual licensed as a broker who is appointed by a partnership, limited partnership, association, limited liability corporation, professional corporation, or a corporation engaged in the real estate brokerage business to be responsible for the acts of the partnership, limited partnership, association, limited liability [corporation,] company, professional corporation or corporation. Every real estate broker partnership, limited partnership, association, [or] limited liability [corporation] company, professional corporation or corporation shall appoint a designated broker;

            (13) "Designated transaction broker", a licensee named by a designated broker or deemed appointed by a designated broker as the transaction broker for a client pursuant to section 339.820;

            (14) "Dual agency", a form of agency which may result when an agent licensee or someone affiliated with the agent licensee represents another party to the same transaction;

            (15) "Dual agent", a limited agent who, with the written consent of all parties to a contemplated real estate transaction, has entered into an agency brokerage relationship, and not a transaction brokerage relationship, with and therefore represents both the seller and buyer or both the landlord and tenant;

            (16) "Exclusive brokerage agreement", means a written brokerage agreement which provides that the broker has the sole right, through the broker or through one or more affiliated licensees, to act as the exclusive limited agent, representative, or transaction broker of the client or customer that meets the requirements of section 339.780;

            (17) "Licensee", a real estate broker or salesperson as defined in section 339.010;

            (18) "Limited agent", a licensee whose duties and obligations to a client are those set forth in sections 339.730 to 339.750;

            (19) "Ministerial acts", those acts that a licensee may perform for a person or entity that are informative in nature and do not rise to the level which requires the creation of a brokerage relationship. Examples of these acts include, but are not limited to:

            (a) Responding to telephone inquiries by consumers as to the availability and pricing of brokerage services;

            (b) Responding to telephone inquiries from a person concerning the price or location of property;

            (c) Attending an open house and responding to questions about the property from a consumer;

            (d) Setting an appointment to view property;

            (e) Responding to questions of consumers walking into a licensee's office concerning brokerage services offered on particular properties;

             (f) Accompanying an appraiser, inspector, contractor, or similar third party on a visit to a property;

            (g) Describing a property or the property's condition in response to a person's inquiry;

            (h) Showing a customer through a property being sold by an owner on his or her own behalf; or

            (i) Referral to another broker or service provider;

            (20) "Residential real estate", all real property improved by a structure that is used or intended to be used primarily for residential living by human occupants and that contains not more than four dwelling units or that contains single dwelling units owned as a condominium or in a cooperative housing association, and vacant land classified as residential property. The term "cooperative housing association" means an association, whether incorporated or unincorporated, organized for the purpose of owning and operating residential real property in Missouri, the shareholders or members of which, by reason of their ownership of a stock or membership certificate, a proprietary lease, or other evidence of membership, are entitled to occupy a dwelling unit pursuant to the terms of a proprietary lease or occupancy agreement;

            (21) "Single agent", a licensee who has entered into a brokerage relationship with and therefore represents only one party in a real estate transaction. A single agent may be one of the following:

            (a) "Buyer's agent", which shall mean a licensee who represents the buyer in a real estate transaction;

            (b) "Landlord's agent", which shall mean a licensee who represents a landlord in a leasing transaction;

            (c) "Seller's agent", which shall mean a licensee who represents the seller in a real estate transaction; and

            (d) "Tenant's agent", which shall mean a licensee who represents the tenant in a leasing transaction;

            (22) "Subagent", a designated broker, together with the broker's affiliated licensees, engaged by another designated broker, together with the broker's affiliated or appointed affiliated licensees, to act as a limited agent for a client, or a designated broker's unappointed affiliated licensees engaged by the designated broker, together with the broker's appointed affiliated licensees, to act as a limited agent for a client. A subagent owes the same obligations and responsibilities to the client pursuant to sections 339.730 to 339.740 as does the client's designated broker;

             (23) "Transaction broker", any licensee acting pursuant to sections 339.710 to 339.860, who:

            (a) Assists the parties to a transaction without an agency or fiduciary relationship to either party and is, therefore, neutral, serving neither as an advocate or advisor for either party to the transaction;

            (b) Assists one or more parties to a transaction and who has not entered into a specific written agency agreement to represent one or more of the parties; or

             (c) Assists another party to the same transaction either solely or through licensee affiliates. Such licensee shall be deemed to be a transaction broker and not a dual agent, provided that, notice of assumption of transaction broker status is provided to the buyer and seller immediately upon such default to transaction broker status, to be confirmed in writing prior to execution of the contract.

            339.845. If the commission receives a notice of delinquent taxes from the director of revenue under the provisions of section 324.010 regarding a real estate broker or salesperson, the commission shall immediately send a copy of such notice to the real estate broker with which the real estate broker or salesperson is associated.

            441.645. If a residence is destroyed by an act of God, including but not limited to fire or a tornado, or other natural disaster or man-made disaster, so long as the tenant was not the person who caused the disaster, the tenant shall not be liable to the landlord for rent during the remainder of the term of the lease agreement.

            452.340. 1. In a proceeding for dissolution of marriage, legal separation or child support, the court may order either or both parents owing a duty of support to a child of the marriage to pay an amount reasonable or necessary for the support of the child, including an award retroactive to the date of filing the petition, without regard to marital misconduct, after considering all relevant factors including:

            (1) The financial needs and resources of the child;

            (2) The financial resources and needs of the parents;

            (3) The standard of living the child would have enjoyed had the marriage not been dissolved;

            (4) The physical and emotional condition of the child, and the child's educational needs;

            (5) The child's physical and legal custody arrangements, including the amount of time the child spends with each parent and the reasonable expenses associated with the custody or visitation arrangements; and

            (6) The reasonable work-related child care expenses of each parent.

            2. The obligation of the parent ordered to make support payments shall abate, in whole or in part, for such periods of time in excess of thirty consecutive days that the other parent has voluntarily relinquished physical custody of a child to the parent ordered to pay child support, notwithstanding any periods of visitation or temporary physical and legal or physical or legal custody pursuant to a judgment of dissolution or legal separation or any modification thereof. In a IV-D case, the family support division may determine the amount of the abatement pursuant to this subsection for any child support order and shall record the amount of abatement in the automated child support system record established pursuant to chapter 454, RSMo. If the case is not a IV-D case and upon court order, the circuit clerk shall record the amount of abatement in the automated child support system record established in chapter 454, RSMo.

            3. Unless the circumstances of the child manifestly dictate otherwise and the court specifically so provides, the obligation of a parent to make child support payments shall terminate when the child:

            (1) Dies;

            (2) Marries;

            (3) Enters active duty in the military;

            (4) Becomes self-supporting, provided that the custodial parent has relinquished the child from parental control by express or implied consent;

            (5) Reaches age eighteen, unless the provisions of subsection 4 or 5 of this section apply; or

            (6) Reaches age twenty-one, unless the provisions of the child support order specifically extend the parental support order past the child's twenty-first birthday for reasons provided by subsection 4 of this section.

            4. If the child is physically or mentally incapacitated from supporting himself and insolvent and unmarried, the court may extend the parental support obligation past the child's eighteenth birthday.

            5. If when a child reaches age eighteen, the child is enrolled in and attending a secondary school program of instruction, the parental support obligation shall continue, if the child continues to attend and progresses toward completion of said program, until the child completes such program or reaches age twenty-one, whichever first occurs. If the child is enrolled in an institution of vocational or higher education not later than October first following graduation from a secondary school or completion of a graduation equivalence degree program and so long as the child enrolls for and completes at least twelve hours of credit each semester, not including the summer semester, at an institution of vocational or higher education and achieves grades sufficient to reenroll at such institution, the parental support obligation shall continue until the child completes his or her education, or until the child reaches the age of twenty-one, whichever first occurs. To remain eligible for such continued parental support, at the beginning of each semester the child shall submit to each parent a transcript or similar official document provided by the institution of vocational or higher education which includes the courses the child is enrolled in and has completed for each term, the grades and credits received for each such course, and an official document from the institution listing the courses which the child is enrolled in for the upcoming term and the number of credits for each such course. When enrolled in at least twelve credit hours, if the child receives failing grades in half or more of his or her courseload in any one semester, payment of child support may be terminated and shall not be eligible for reinstatement. Upon request for notification of the child's grades by the noncustodial parent, the child shall produce the required documents to the noncustodial parent within thirty days of receipt of grades from the education institution. If the child fails to produce the required documents, payment of child support may terminate without the accrual of any child support arrearage and shall not be eligible for reinstatement. If the circumstances of the child manifestly dictate, the court may waive the October first deadline for enrollment required by this subsection. If the child is enrolled in such an institution, the child or parent obligated to pay support may petition the court to amend the order to direct the obligated parent to make the payments directly to the child. As used in this section, an "institution of vocational education" means any postsecondary training or schooling for which the student is assessed a fee and attends classes regularly. "Higher education" means any community college, college, or university at which the child attends classes regularly. A child who has been diagnosed with a developmental disability, as defined in section 630.005, RSMo, or whose physical disability or diagnosed health problem limits the child's ability to carry the number of credit hours prescribed in this subsection, shall remain eligible for child support so long as such child is enrolled in and attending an institution of vocational or higher education, and the child continues to meet the other requirements of this subsection. A child who is employed at least fifteen hours per week during the semester may take as few as nine credit hours per semester and remain eligible for child support so long as all other requirements of this subsection are complied with.

            6. The court shall consider ordering a parent to waive the right to claim the tax dependency exemption for a child enrolled in an institution of vocational or higher education in favor of the other parent if the application of state and federal tax laws and eligibility for financial aid will make an award of the exemption to the other parent appropriate.

            7. The general assembly finds and declares that it is the public policy of this state that frequent, continuing and meaningful contact with both parents after the parents have separated or dissolved their marriage is in the best interest of the child except for cases where the court specifically finds that such contact is not in the best interest of the child. In order to effectuate this public policy, a court with jurisdiction shall enforce visitation, custody and child support orders in the same manner. A court with jurisdiction may abate, in whole or in part, any past or future obligation of support and may transfer the physical and legal or physical or legal custody of one or more children if it finds that a parent has, without good cause, failed to provide visitation or physical and legal or physical or legal custody to the other parent pursuant to the terms of a judgment of dissolution, legal separation or modifications thereof. The court shall also award, if requested and for good cause shown, reasonable expenses, attorney's fees and court costs incurred by the prevailing party.

            8. The Missouri supreme court shall have in effect a rule establishing guidelines by which any award of child support shall be made in any judicial or administrative proceeding. Said guidelines shall contain specific, descriptive and numeric criteria which will result in a computation of the support obligation. The guidelines shall address how the amount of child support shall be calculated when an award of joint physical custody results in the child or children spending substantially equal time with both parents. The Missouri supreme court shall publish child support guidelines and specifically list and explain the relevant factors and assumptions that were used to calculate the child support guidelines. Any rule made pursuant to this subsection shall be reviewed by the promulgating body not less than once every four years to ensure that its application results in the determination of appropriate child support award amounts.

            9. There shall be a rebuttable presumption, in any judicial or administrative proceeding for the award of child support, that the amount of the award which would result from the application of the guidelines established pursuant to subsection 8 of this section is the correct amount of child support to be awarded. A written finding or specific finding on the record in a judicial or administrative proceeding that the application of the guidelines would be unjust or inappropriate in a particular case, after considering all relevant factors, including the factors set out in subsection 1 of this section, is required if requested by a party and shall be sufficient to rebut the presumption in the case. The written finding or specific finding on the record shall detail the specific relevant factors that required a deviation from the application of the guidelines.

            10. Pursuant to this or any other chapter, when a court determines the amount owed by a parent for support provided to a child by another person, other than a parent, prior to the date of filing of a petition requesting support, or when the director of the family support division establishes the amount of state debt due pursuant to subdivision (2) of subsection 1 of section 454.465, RSMo, the court or director shall use the guidelines established pursuant to subsection 8 of this section. The amount of child support resulting from the application of the guidelines shall be applied retroactively for a period prior to the establishment of a support order and the length of the period of retroactivity shall be left to the discretion of the court or director. There shall be a rebuttable presumption that the amount resulting from application of the guidelines under subsection 8 of this section constitutes the amount owed by the parent for the period prior to the date of the filing of the petition for support or the period for which state debt is being established. In applying the guidelines to determine a retroactive support amount, when information as to average monthly income is available, the court or director may use the average monthly income of the noncustodial parent, as averaged over the period of retroactivity, in determining the amount of presumed child support owed for the period of retroactivity. The court or director may enter a different amount in a particular case upon finding, after consideration of all relevant factors, including the factors set out in subsection 1 of this section, that there is sufficient cause to rebut the presumed amount.

            11. The obligation of a parent to make child support payments may be terminated as follows:

            (1) Provided that the state case registry or child support order contains the child's date of birth, the obligation shall be deemed terminated without further judicial or administrative process when the child reaches age twenty-one if the child support order does not specifically require payment of child support beyond age twenty-one for reasons provided by subsection 4 of this section;

            (2) The obligation shall be deemed terminated without further judicial or administrative process when the parent receiving child support furnishes a sworn statement or affidavit notifying the obligor parent of the child's emancipation in accordance with the requirements of subsection 4 of section 452.370, and a copy of such sworn statement or affidavit is filed with the court which entered the order establishing the child support obligation, or the family support division [of child support enforcement] for an order entered pursuant to section 454.470;

            (3) The obligation shall be deemed terminated without further judicial or administrative process when the parent paying child support files a sworn statement or affidavit with the court which entered the order establishing the child support obligation, or the family support division for an order entered pursuant to section 454.470, stating that the child is emancipated and reciting the factual basis for such statement; which statement or affidavit is served by the court or division, as applicable, on the child support obligee; and which is either acknowledged and affirmed by the child support obligee in writing, or which is not responded to in writing within thirty days of receipt by the child support obligee;

            (4) The obligation shall be terminated as provided by this subdivision by the court which entered the order establishing the child support obligation, or the family support division for an order entered pursuant to section 454.470, when the parent paying child support files a sworn statement or affidavit with the court which entered the order establishing the child support obligation, or the family support division, as applicable, stating that the child is emancipated and reciting the factual basis for such statement; and which statement or affidavit is served by the court or division, as applicable, on the child support obligee. If the obligee denies the statement or affidavit, the court or division shall thereupon treat the sworn statement or affidavit as a [motion to modify the support obligation pursuant to section 452.370 or section 454.496, RSMo,] request for hearing and shall proceed to hear and adjudicate such [motion] request for hearing as provided by law; provided that the court may require the payment of a deposit as security for court costs and any accrued court costs, as provided by law, in relation to such [motion to modify.] request for hearing. When the division receives a request for hearing, the hearing shall be held in the manner provided by section 454.475.

            12. The court may enter a judgment terminating child support pursuant to subdivisions (1) to (3) of subsection 11 of this section without necessity of a court appearance by either party. The clerk of the court shall mail a copy of a judgment terminating child support entered pursuant to subsection 11 of this section on both the obligor and obligee parents. The supreme court may promulgate uniform forms for sworn statements and affidavits to terminate orders of child support obligations for use pursuant to subsection 11 of this section and subsection 4 of section 452.370.

            452.377. 1. For purposes of this section and section 452.375, "relocate" or "relocation" means a change in the principal residence of a child for a period of ninety days or more, but does not include a temporary absence from the principal residence.

            2. Notice of a proposed relocation of the residence of the child, or any party entitled to custody or visitation of the child, shall be given in writing by certified mail, return receipt requested, to any party with custody or visitation rights. Absent exigent circumstances as determined by a court with jurisdiction, written notice shall be provided at least sixty days in advance of the proposed relocation. The notice of the proposed relocation shall include the following information:

            (1) The intended new residence, including the specific address and mailing address, if known, and if not known, the city;

            (2) The home telephone number of the new residence, if known;

            (3) The date of the intended move or proposed relocation;

            (4) A brief statement of the specific reasons for the proposed relocation of a child, if applicable; and

            (5) A proposal for a revised schedule of custody or visitation with the child, if applicable.

            3. A party required to give notice of a proposed relocation pursuant to subsection 2 of this section has a continuing duty to provide a change in or addition to the information required by this section as soon as such information becomes known.

            4. In exceptional circumstances where the court makes a finding that the health or safety of any adult or child would be unreasonably placed at risk by the disclosure of the required identifying information concerning a proposed relocation of the child, the court may order that:

            (1) The specific residence address and telephone number of the child, parent or person, and other identifying information shall not be disclosed in the pleadings, notice, other documents filed in the proceeding or the final order except for an in camera disclosure;

            (2) The notice requirements provided by this section shall be waived to the extent necessary to protect the health or safety of a child or any adult; or

            (3) Any other remedial action the court considers necessary to facilitate the legitimate needs of the parties and the best interest of the child.

            5. The court shall consider a failure to provide notice of a proposed relocation of a child as:

            (1) A factor in determining whether custody and visitation should be modified;

            (2) A basis for ordering the return of the child if the relocation occurs without notice; and

            (3) Sufficient cause to order the party seeking to relocate the child to pay reasonable expenses and attorneys fees incurred by the party objecting to the relocation.

            6. If the parties agree to a revised schedule of custody and visitation for the child, which includes a parenting plan, they may submit the terms of such agreement to the court with a written affidavit signed by all parties with custody or visitation assenting to the terms of the agreement, and the court may order the revised parenting plan and applicable visitation schedule without a hearing.

            7. The residence of the child may be relocated sixty days after providing notice, as required by this section, unless a parent files a motion seeking an order to prevent the relocation within thirty days after receipt of such notice. Such motion shall be accompanied by an affidavit setting forth the specific factual basis supporting a prohibition of the relocation. The person seeking relocation shall file a response to the motion within fourteen days, unless extended by the court for good cause, and include a counter-affidavit setting forth the facts in support of the relocation as well as a proposed revised parenting plan for the child.

            8. If relocation of the child is proposed, a third party entitled by court order to legal custody of or visitation with a child and who is not a parent may file a cause of action to obtain a revised schedule of legal custody or visitation, but shall not prevent a relocation.

            9. The party seeking to relocate shall have the burden of proving that the proposed relocation is made in good faith and is in the best interest of the child.

            10. If relocation is permitted:

            (1) The court shall order contact with the nonrelocating party including custody or visitation and telephone access sufficient to assure that the child has frequent, continuing and meaningful contact with the nonrelocating party unless the child's best interest warrants otherwise; and

            (2) The court shall specify how the transportation costs will be allocated between the parties and adjust the child support, as appropriate, considering the costs of transportation.             11. After August 28, 1998, every court order establishing or modifying custody or visitation shall include the following language: "Absent exigent circumstances as determined by a court with jurisdiction, you, as a party to this action, are ordered to notify, in writing by certified mail, return receipt requested, and at least sixty days prior to the proposed relocation, each party to this action of any proposed relocation of the principal residence of the child, including the following information:

            (1) The intended new residence, including the specific address and mailing address, if known, and if not known, the city;

            (2) The home telephone number of the new residence, if known;

            (3) The date of the intended move or proposed relocation;

            (4) A brief statement of the specific reasons for the proposed relocation of the child; and

            (5) A proposal for a revised schedule of custody or visitation with the child.

 

Your obligation to provide this information to each party continues as long as you or any other party by virtue of this order is entitled to custody of a child covered by this order. Your failure to obey the order of this court regarding the proposed relocation may result in further litigation to enforce such order, including contempt of court. In addition, your failure to notify a party of a relocation of the child may be considered in a proceeding to modify custody or visitation with the child. Reasonable costs and attorney fees may be assessed against you if you fail to give the required notice. The residence of the child may be relocated sixty days after providing notice, as required in this section, unless a parent files a motion seeking an order to prevent the relocation within thirty days after receipt of such notice. Such motion shall be accompanied by an affidavit setting forth the specific factual basis supporting a prohibition of the relocation. The person seeking relocation shall file a response to the motion within fourteen days, unless extended by the court for good cause, and include a counter-affidavit setting forth the facts in support of the relocation as well as a proposed revised parenting plan for the child.".

            12. Violation of the provisions of this section or a court order under this section may be deemed a change of circumstance under section 452.410, allowing the court to modify the prior custody decree. In addition, the court may utilize any and all powers relating to contempt conferred on it by law or rule of the Missouri supreme court.

            13. Any party who objects in good faith to the relocation of a child's principal residence shall not be ordered to pay the costs and attorney's fees of the party seeking to relocate.

            452.430. Any pleadings, other than the interlocutory or final judgment, or any modification thereof, in a dissolution of marriage [or] , legal separation, or motion to modify filed prior to August 28, 2009, shall be subject to inspection only by the parties or an attorney of record or upon order of the court for good cause shown, by any person or designee of a person licensed and acting under chapter 381 who shall keep any information obtained confidential except as necessary to the performance of functions required by chapter 381, or by the family support division within the department of social services when services are being provided under section 454.400, RSMo. Such persons may also receive or make copies of documents without requiring the clerk to redact information unless specifically ordered to do so by the court. Any pleadings, other than the interlocutory or final judgment, or any modification thereof, in a dissolution of marriage, legal separation, or motion to modify filed prior to August 28, 2009, shall be subject to inspection by the public only if the clerk has redacted the Social Security number from such pleadings or filings. The clerk upon request shall redact the Social Security number from any filings, judgment or pleading before releasing the filings, pleadings, or interlocutory or final judgment to the public.

            454.425. 1. The family support division [of child support enforcement] shall render child support services authorized pursuant to this chapter to persons who are not recipients of public assistance as well as to such recipients. Services may be provided to children, custodial parents, noncustodial parents and other persons entitled to receive support. An application may be required by the division for services and fees may be charged by the division pursuant to 42 U.S.C. section 654 and federal regulations. Services provided under a state plan shall be made available to residents of other states on the same terms as residents of this state. If a family receiving services ceases to receive assistance under a state program funded under Part A of Title IV of the Social Security Act, the division shall provide appropriate notice to such family, and services shall continue under the same terms and conditions as that provided to other individuals under the state plan, except that an application for continued services shall not be required and the requirement for payment of fees shall not apply to the family.

            2. The division shall charge a fee in the amount of sixty dollars to an obligee or obligor who requests that the division review a support order under subdivision (13) of subsection 2 of section 454.400 for the purpose of determining whether a modification to the support order is appropriate. The division shall not initiate a review until the requestor pays the review fee. After the division initiates a review, the fee is nonrefundable, regardless of the outcome of the review. The division shall waive the review fee if the requestor has an individual gross monthly income of less than two hundred fifty percent of the federal poverty level based on a household size of one, if the requestor currently or formerly received assistance under a state program funded under Part A of Title IV of the federal Social Security Act or if the fee is otherwise prohibited by state or federal law.

            3. The division shall charge a fee to an obligee or obligor who requests that the division modify a support order after the division has determined that a modification is appropriate and that such modification can be completed under this chapter. The division shall not initiate a modification until the requestor pays the modification fee. After the division initiates a modification, the fee is nonrefundable, regardless of the outcome of the modification action. The division shall waive the modification fee if the requestor has an individual gross monthly income of less than two hundred fifty percent of the federal poverty level based on a household size of one, if the requestor currently or formerly received assistance under a state program funded under Part A of Title IV of the federal Social Security Act or if the fee is otherwise prohibited by state or federal law. When appropriate to charge a modification fee under this section, the modification fee shall be in the amount of:

            (1) One hundred seventy-five dollars if the requestor has an individual gross monthly income equal to or greater than two hundred fifty percent of the federal poverty level but less than four hundred percent of the federal poverty level based on a household size of one; or

            (2) Three hundred fifty dollars if the requestor has an individual gross monthly income equal to or greater than four hundred percent of the federal poverty level based on a household size of one.

            4. The division shall charge a fee in the amount of twenty-five dollars for submitting past-due child and spousal support debts for collection through federal income tax refund offset. The fee shall be assessed only if the division collects support on a case through federal income tax refund offset. The fee shall be assessed each time a federal income tax intercept is distributed to a case receiving services under this chapter. The obligor shall receive credit against the support order for the entire federal income tax refund offset. The fee shall be collected from the obligee by deducting the fee from the amount payable to the obligee. The division shall waive the federal income tax refund offset fee if the obligee currently or formerly received assistance under a state program funded under Part A of Title IV of the federal Social Security Act or if the fee is otherwise prohibited by state or federal law.

            5. The division shall have the authority to change the amount of the review fee and modification fee under this section by administrative rule under the authority of section 454.400. The amount of the review fee and modification fee established by the division by rule shall be based on actual standardized cost in accordance with 45 CFR Section 302.33.

            454.475. 1. Hearings provided for in this section shall be conducted pursuant to chapter 536, RSMo, by administrative hearing officers designated by the Missouri department of social services. The hearing officer shall provide the parents, the person having custody of the child, or other appropriate agencies or their attorneys with notice of any proceeding in which support obligations may be established or modified. The department shall not be stayed from enforcing and collecting upon the administrative order during the hearing process and during any appeal to the courts of this state, unless specifically enjoined by court order.

            2. If no factual issue has been raised by the application for hearing, or the issues raised have been previously litigated or do not constitute a defense to the action, the director may enter an order without an evidentiary hearing, which order shall be a final decision entitled to judicial review as provided in sections 536.100 to 536.140, RSMo.

            3. After full and fair hearing, the hearing officer shall make specific findings regarding the liability and responsibility, if any, of the alleged responsible parent for the support of the dependent child, and for repayment of accrued state debt or arrearages, and the costs of collection, and shall enter an order consistent therewith. In making the determination of the amount the parent shall contribute toward the future support of a dependent child, the hearing officer shall [use the scale and formula for minimum support obligations established by the department pursuant to section 454.480] consider the factors set forth in section 452.340.

            4. If the person who requests the hearing fails to appear at the time and place set for the hearing, upon a showing of proper notice to that parent, the hearing officer shall enter findings and order in accordance with the provisions of the notice and finding of support responsibility unless the hearing officer determines that no good cause therefor exists.

            5. In contested cases, the findings and order of the hearing officer shall be the decision of the director. Any parent or person having custody of the child adversely affected by such decision may obtain judicial review pursuant to sections 536.100 to 536.140, RSMo, by filing a petition for review in the circuit court of proper venue within thirty days of mailing of the decision. Copies of the decision or order of the hearing officer shall be mailed to any parent, person having custody of the child and the division within fourteen days of issuance.

            6. If a hearing has been requested, and upon request of a parent, a person having custody of the child, the division or a IV-D agency, the director shall enter a temporary order requiring the provision of child support pending the final decision or order pursuant to this section if there is clear and convincing evidence establishing a presumption of paternity pursuant to section 210.822, RSMo. In determining the amount of child support, the director shall consider the factors set forth in section 452.340, RSMo. The temporary order, effective upon filing pursuant to section 454.490, is not subject to a hearing pursuant to this section. The temporary order may be stayed by a court of competent jurisdiction only after a hearing and a finding by the court that the order fails to comply with rule 88.01.

            454.515. 1. A judgment or order for child support or maintenance payable in periodic installments shall not be a lien on the real estate of the person against whom the judgment or order is rendered until the person entitled to receive payments pursuant to the judgment or order, the division or IV-D agency files a lien and the lien is recorded in the office of the circuit clerk of any county in this state in which such real estate is situated in the manner provided for by the supreme court and chapter 511, RSMo. Thereafter, the judgment shall become a lien on all real property of the obligor in such county, owned by the obligor at the time, or which the obligor may acquire afterwards and before the lien expires.

            2. Liens pursuant to this section shall commence on the day filed and shall continue for a period of three years. A judgment creditor, the division or IV-D agency may revive a lien by filing another lien on or before each three-year anniversary of the original judgment. At the time each lien is revived, all unpaid installments shall remain a lien for the subsequent three-year period.

            3. The lien shall state the name, last known address of the obligor, the last four digits of the obligor's Social Security number, the obligor's date of birth, if known, and the amount of support or maintenance due and unpaid.

            4. A copy of the lien shall be mailed by the person entitled to receive payments under the judgment or order, the division or IV-D agency to the last known address of the obligor.             5. The person entitled to receive payments pursuant to the judgment or order, the division or IV-D agency may execute a partial or total release of the liens created by this section, either generally or as to specific property.

            454.517. 1. The director, IV-D agency or the obligee may cause a lien for unpaid and delinquent child or spousal support to be placed upon any workers' compensation benefits payable to an obligor delinquent in child or spousal support payments.

            2. No such lien shall be effective unless and until a written notice is filed with the director of the division of workers' compensation. The notice shall contain the name and address of the delinquent obligor, the Social Security number of the obligor, if known, the name of the obligee, and the amount of delinquent child or spousal support.

            3. Notice of lien shall not be filed unless the delinquent child or spousal support obligation exceeds one hundred dollars.

            4. Any person or persons, firm or firms, corporation or corporations, including an insurance carrier, making any payment of workers' compensation benefits to such obligor or to such obligor's attorneys, heirs or legal representative, after receipt of such notice, as defined in subsection 5 of this section, shall be liable to the obligee or, if support has been assigned pursuant to subsection 2 of section 208.040, RSMo, to the state or IV-D agency in an amount equal to the lesser of the workers' compensation benefits paid or delinquent child or spousal support. In such event, the lien may be enforced by a suit at law against any person or persons, firm or firms, corporation or corporations making the workers' compensation benefit payment.

            5. Upon the filing of a notice pursuant to this section, the director of the division of workers' compensation shall mail to the obligor and to all attorneys and insurance carriers of record, a copy of the notice. The obligor, attorneys and insurance carriers shall be deemed to have received the notice within five days of the mailing of the notice by the director of the division of workers' compensation. The lien described in this section shall attach to all workers' compensation benefits which are thereafter payable.

            6. A notice issued by the IV-D agency of this state shall advise the obligor of the procedures to contest the lien pursuant to section 454.475 on the grounds that such lien is improper due to a mistake of fact by requesting a hearing within thirty days of the mailing date of the notice. At such a hearing the certified copy of the court order and the sworn or certified statement of arrearages shall constitute prima facie evidence that the director's order is valid and enforceable. If a prima facie case is established, the obligor may only assert mistake of fact as a defense. For purposes of this section, "mistake of fact" means an error in the amount of the overdue support or an error as to the identity of the obligor. The obligor shall have the burden of proof on such issues.

            [6.] 7. In cases which are not IV-D cases, to cause a lien pursuant to the provisions of this section the obligee or the obligor's attorney shall file notice of the lien with the lienholder or payor. This notice shall have attached a certified copy of the court order with all modifications and a sworn statement by the obligee or a certified statement from the court attesting to or certifying the amount of arrearages.

            454.548. In addition to any fees imposed pursuant to section 454.425 and if allowed by federal law, the division [may] shall charge and collect a fee of ten dollars from support received through the payment center for each order for every year or portion of a year during which payments are received by the payment center. Such fee shall be used to reimburse the state for the costs associated with processing support payments.

            454.557. 1. A current support obligation shall not be recorded in the records maintained in the automated child support system in the following cases:

            (1) In a IV-D case with a support order pursuant to section 454.465 or 454.470 when the division determines that payments for current support are no longer due and should no longer be made to the payment center. The division shall notify by first class mail the obligor and obligee under the support orders that payments shall no longer be made to the payment center, and any withholding of income shall be terminated unless it is subsequently determined by the division or court having jurisdiction that payments will continue. The division's determination shall terminate the division's support order, but shall not terminate any obligation of support established by court order. The obligor and obligee may contest the decision of the division to terminate the division's support order by requesting a hearing within thirty days of the mailing of the notice provided pursuant to this section. The hearing shall comply with the provisions of section 454.475;

            (2) In [a] all [IV-D case] cases with a support order entered by a court when the court that issued the support order terminates such order [and notifies the division]. The division shall also cease enforcing the order if no past support is due; or

            (3) In all cases when the [child is twenty-two years of age, unless a court orders support to continue. The obligor or obligee may contest the decision of the division to terminate accruing support orders by requesting a hearing within thirty days of the mailing of notice by the division. The hearing shall comply with the provisions of section 454.475. The issue at the hearing, if any, shall be limited to a mistake of fact as to the age of the child or the existence of a court order requiring support after the age of twenty-two] obligation of a parent to make child support payments is deemed terminated pursuant to subdivisions (1) to (4) of subsection 11 of section 452.340.

            2. Nothing in this section shall affect or terminate the amount due for unpaid past support.

            454.1003. 1. A court or the director of the division of child support enforcement may issue an order, or in the case of a business, professional or occupational license, only a court may issue an order, suspending an obligor's license and ordering the obligor to refrain from engaging in a licensed activity in the following cases:

            (1) When the obligor is not making child support payments in accordance with a [court] support order and owes an arrearage in an amount greater than or equal to three months support payments or two thousand five hundred dollars, whichever is less, as of the date of service of a notice of intent to suspend such license; or

            (2) When the obligor or any other person, after receiving appropriate notice, fails to comply with a subpoena of a court or the director concerning actions relating to the establishment of paternity, or to the establishment, modification or enforcement of support orders, or order of the director for genetic testing.

            2. In any case but a IV-D case, upon the petition of an obligee alleging the existence of an arrearage, a court with jurisdiction over the support order may issue a notice of intent to suspend a license. In a IV-D case, the director, or a court at the request of the director, may issue a notice of intent to suspend.

            3. The notice of intent to suspend a license shall be served on the obligor personally or by certified mail. If the proposed suspension of license is based on the obligor's support arrearage, the notice shall state that the obligor's license shall be suspended sixty days after service unless, within such time, the obligor:

            (1) Pays the entire arrearage stated in the notice;

            (2) Enters into and complies with a payment plan approved by the court or the division; or

            (3) Requests a hearing before the court or the director.

            4. In a IV-D case, the notice shall advise the obligor that hearings are subject to the contested case provisions of chapter 536, RSMo.

            5. If the proposed suspension of license is based on the alleged failure to comply with a subpoena relating to paternity or a child support proceeding, or order of the director for genetic testing, the notice of intent to suspend shall inform the person that such person's license shall be suspended sixty days after service, unless the person complies with the subpoena or order.

            6. If the obligor fails to comply with the terms of repayment agreement, a court or the division may issue a notice of intent to suspend the obligor's license.

            7. In addition to the actions to suspend or withhold licenses pursuant to this chapter, a court or the director of the division of child support enforcement may restrict such licenses in accordance with the provisions of this chapter.

            455.007. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, the public interest exception to the mootness doctrine shall apply to an appeal of a full order of protection which has expired.

            455.501. As used in sections 455.500 to 455.538, the following terms mean:

            (1) "Abuse", any physical injury, sexual abuse, or emotional abuse inflicted on a child other than by accidental means by an adult household member, or stalking of a child. Discipline including spanking, administered in a reasonable manner shall not be construed to be abuse;

            (2) "Adult household member", any person [eighteen] seventeen years of age or older or an emancipated child who resides with the child in the same dwelling unit;

            (3) "Child", any person under [eighteen] seventeen years of age;

            (4) "Court", the circuit or associate circuit judge or a family court commissioner;

            (5) "Ex parte order of protection", an order of protection issued by the court before the respondent has received notice of the petition or an opportunity to be heard on it;

            (6) "Full order of protection", an order of protection issued after a hearing on the record where the respondent has received notice of the proceedings and has had an opportunity to be heard;

            (7) "Order of protection", either an ex parte order of protection or a full order of protection;

            (8) "Petitioner", a person authorized to file a verified petition under the provisions of sections 455.503 and 455.505;

            (9) "Respondent", the adult household member, emancipated child or person stalking the child against whom a verified petition has been filed;

            (10) "Stalking", when an adult purposely and repeatedly engages in an unwanted course of conduct with regard to a child that causes another adult to believe that a child would suffer alarm by the conduct. As used in this subdivision:

            (a) "Course of conduct" means a pattern of conduct composed of repeated acts over a period of time, however short, that serves no legitimate purpose. Such conduct may include, but is not limited to, following the other person or unwanted communication or contact;

            (b) "Repeated" means two or more incidents evidencing a continuity of purpose; and

            (c) "Alarm" means to cause fear of danger of physical harm;

            (11) "Victim", a child who is alleged to have been abused by an adult household member.

            476.083. 1. In addition to any appointments made pursuant to section 485.010, RSMo, the presiding judge of each circuit containing one or more facilities operated by the department of corrections with an average total inmate population in all such facilities in the circuit over the previous two years of more than [two] one thousand five hundred inmates may appoint a circuit court marshal to aid the presiding judge in the administration of the judicial business of the circuit by overseeing the physical security of the courthouse, serving court-generated papers and orders, and assisting the judges of the circuit as the presiding judge determines appropriate. Such circuit court marshal appointed pursuant to the provisions of this section shall serve at the pleasure of the presiding judge. The circuit court marshal authorized by this section is in addition to staff support from the circuit clerks, deputy circuit clerks, division clerks, municipal clerks, and any other staff personnel which may otherwise be provided by law.

            2. The salary of a circuit court marshal shall be established by the presiding judge of the circuit within funds made available for that purpose, but such salary shall not exceed ninety percent of the salary of the highest paid sheriff serving a county wholly or partially within that circuit. Personnel authorized by this section shall be paid from state funds or federal grant moneys which are available for that purpose and not from county funds.

            3. Any person appointed as a circuit court marshal pursuant to this section shall have at least five years' prior experience as a law enforcement officer. In addition, any such person shall within one year after appointment, or as soon as practicable, attend a court security school or training program operated by the United States Marshal Service. In addition to all other powers and duties prescribed in this section, a circuit court marshal may:

            (1) Serve process;

            (2) Wear a concealable firearm; and

            (3) Make an arrest based upon local court rules and state law, and as directed by the presiding judge of the circuit.

            525.233. The notice of garnishment and the writ of sequestration shall contain only the last four digits of the federal taxpayer identification number, when available, on the judgment debtor. When the last four digits of the federal taxpayer identification number is omitted from the notice of garnishment or the writ of sequestration the garnishee shall not be held liable for withholding from the incorrect debtor by the creditor garnishing the funds. The creditor shall not have any action against the garnishee, when the last four digits of the federal taxpayer identification number is omitted from the notice of garnishment or the writ of sequestration or does not match the last four digits of the federal taxpayer identification, for failure to withhold from any person the amount stated in the notice of garnishment or the writ of sequestration, except to serve a notice of garnishment or writ of sequestration for the original amount to the garnishee with the correct last four digits of the federal taxpayer identification number.

            537.296. In any action for private nuisance where the amount in controversy exceeds one million dollars, if any party requests the court or jury to visit the property alleged to be affected by the nuisance, the court or jury [shall] may visit the property.

            537.528. 1. Any action [seeking money damages] against a person for conduct or speech undertaken or made in connection with a public hearing or public meeting, in a quasi-judicial proceeding before a tribunal or decision-making body of the state or any political subdivision of the state is subject to a special motion to dismiss, motion for judgment on the pleadings, or motion for summary judgment that shall be considered by the court on a priority or expedited basis to ensure the early consideration of the issues raised by the motion and to prevent the unnecessary expense of litigation. Upon the filing of any special motion described in this subsection, all discovery shall be suspended pending a decision on the motion by the court and the exhaustion of all appeals regarding the special motion.

            2. If the rights afforded by this section are raised as an affirmative defense and if a court grants a motion to dismiss, a motion for judgment on the pleadings or a motion for summary judgment filed within ninety days of the filing of the moving party's answer, the court shall award reasonable attorney fees and costs incurred by the moving party in defending the action. If the court finds that a special motion to dismiss or motion for summary judgment is frivolous or solely intended to cause unnecessary delay, the court shall award costs and reasonable attorney fees to the party prevailing on the motion.

            3. Any party shall have the right to an expedited appeal from a trial court order on the special motions described in subsection 2 of this section or from a trial court's failure to rule on the motion on an expedited basis.

            4. As used in this section, a "public meeting in a quasi-judicial proceeding" means and includes any meeting established and held by a state or local governmental entity, including without limitations meetings or presentations before state, county, city, town or village councils, planning commissions, review boards or commissions.

            5. Nothing in this section limits or prohibits the exercise of a right or remedy of a party granted pursuant to another constitutional, statutory, common law or administrative provision, including civil actions for defamation.

            6. If any provision of this section or the application of any provision of this section to a person or circumstance is held invalid, the invalidity shall not affect other provisions or applications of this section that can be given effect without the invalid provision or application, and to this end the provisions of this section are severable.

            7. The provisions of this section shall apply to all causes of actions.

            542.286. 1. Except for a warrant to search for the blood of a person involved in an accident, a warrant to search a person or any movable thing may be executed in any part of the state where the person or thing is found if, subsequent to the filing of the application, the person or thing moves or is taken out of the territorial jurisdiction of the judge issuing the warrant

            2. A warrant to search for the blood of a person involved in an accident may be executed in any part of the state where the person whose blood is the subject of the warrant is found regardless of when the person moves or is taken out of the territorial jurisdiction of the court issuing the warrant.

            3. All other search warrants shall be executed within the territorial jurisdiction of the court out of which the warrant issued and within the territorial jurisdiction of the officer executing the warrant.

            563.011. As used in this chapter the following terms shall mean:

            (1) "Deadly force", physical force which the actor uses with the purpose of causing or which he or she knows to create a substantial risk of causing death or serious physical injury;

            (2) "Dwelling", any building, inhabitable structure, or conveyance of any kind, whether the building, inhabitable structure, or conveyance is temporary or permanent, mobile or immobile, which has a roof over it, including a tent, and is designed to be occupied by people lodging therein at night;

            (3) "Forcible felony", any felony involving the use or threat of physical force or violence against any individual, including but not limited to murder, robbery, burglary, arson, kidnapping, assault, and any forcible sexual offense;

            (4) "Premises", includes any building, inhabitable structure and any real property;

            (5) "Private person", any person other than a law enforcement officer;

            (6) "Private property", any real property in this state that is privately owned or leased;

            (7) "Remain after unlawfully entering", to remain in or upon premises after unlawfully entering as defined in this section;

            [(7)] (8) "Residence", a dwelling in which a person resides either temporarily or permanently or is visiting as an invited guest;

            [(8)] (9) "Unlawfully enter", a person unlawfully enters in or upon premises or private property when he or she enters such premises or private property and is not licensed or privileged to do so. A person who, regardless of his or her purpose, enters in or upon private property or premises that are at the time open to the public does so with license unless he or she defies a lawful order not to enter, personally communicated to him or her by the owner of such premises or by another authorized person. A license to enter in a building that is only partly open to the public is not a license to enter in that part of the building that is not open to the public.

            563.031. 1. A person may, subject to the provisions of subsection 2 of this section, use physical force upon another person when and to the extent he or she reasonably believes such force to be necessary to defend himself or herself or a third person from what he or she reasonably believes to be the use or imminent use of unlawful force by such other person, unless:

            (1) The actor was the initial aggressor; except that in such case his or her use of force is nevertheless justifiable provided:

            (a) He or she has withdrawn from the encounter and effectively communicated such withdrawal to such other person but the latter persists in continuing the incident by the use or threatened use of unlawful force; or

            (b) He or she is a law enforcement officer and as such is an aggressor pursuant to section 563.046; or

            (c) The aggressor is justified under some other provision of this chapter or other provision of law;

            (2) Under the circumstances as the actor reasonably believes them to be, the person whom he or she seeks to protect would not be justified in using such protective force;

            (3) The actor was attempting to commit, committing, or escaping after the commission of a forcible felony.

            2. A person may not use deadly force upon another person under the circumstances specified in subsection 1 of this section unless:

            (1) He or she reasonably believes that such deadly force is necessary to protect himself or herself or another against death, serious physical injury, or any forcible felony; [or]

            (2) Such force is used against a person who unlawfully enters, remains after unlawfully entering, or attempts to unlawfully enter a dwelling, residence, or vehicle lawfully occupied by such person; or

            (3) Such force is used against a person who unlawfully enters, remains after unlawfully entering, or attempts to unlawfully enter private property that is owned or leased by an individual claiming a justification of using protective force under this section.

            3. A person does not have a duty to retreat from a dwelling, residence, or vehicle where the person is not unlawfully entering or unlawfully remaining. A person does not have a duty to retreat from private property that is owned or leased by such individual.

            4. The justification afforded by this section extends to the use of physical restraint as protective force provided that the actor takes all reasonable measures to terminate the restraint as soon as it is reasonable to do so.

            5. The defendant shall have the burden of injecting the issue of justification under this section.

            571.030. 1. A person commits the crime of unlawful use of weapons if he or she knowingly:

            (1) Carries concealed upon or about his or her person a knife, a firearm, a blackjack or any other weapon readily capable of lethal use; or

            (2) Sets a spring gun; or

            (3) Discharges or shoots a firearm into a dwelling house, a railroad train, boat, aircraft, or motor vehicle as defined in section 302.010, RSMo, or any building or structure used for the assembling of people; or

            (4) Exhibits, in the presence of one or more persons, any weapon readily capable of lethal use in an angry or threatening manner; or

            (5) Possesses or discharges a firearm or projectile weapon while intoxicated; or

            (6) Discharges a firearm within one hundred yards of any occupied schoolhouse, courthouse, or church building; or

            (7) Discharges or shoots a firearm at a mark, at any object, or at random, on, along or across a public highway or discharges or shoots a firearm into any outbuilding; or

            (8) Carries a firearm or any other weapon readily capable of lethal use into any church or place where people have assembled for worship, or into any election precinct on any election day, or into any building owned or occupied by any agency of the federal government, state government, or political subdivision thereof; or

            (9) Discharges or shoots a firearm at or from a motor vehicle, as defined in section 301.010, RSMo, discharges or shoots a firearm at any person, or at any other motor vehicle, or at any building or habitable structure, unless the person was lawfully acting in self-defense; or

            (10) Carries a firearm, whether loaded or unloaded, or any other weapon readily capable of lethal use into any school, onto any school bus, or onto the premises of any function or activity sponsored or sanctioned by school officials or the district school board.

            2. Subdivisions (1), (3), (4), (6), (7), (8), (9) and (10) of subsection 1 of this section shall not apply to or affect any of the following:

            (1) All state, county and municipal peace officers who have completed the training required by the police officer standards and training commission pursuant to sections 590.030 to 590.050, RSMo, and [possessing] who possess the duty and power of arrest for violation of the general criminal laws of the state or for violation of ordinances of counties or municipalities of the state, whether such officers are on or off duty, and whether such officers are within or outside of the law enforcement agency's jurisdiction, or all qualified retired peace officers, as defined in subsection 10 of this section, and who carry the identification defined in subsection 11 of this section, or any person summoned by such officers to assist in making arrests or preserving the peace while actually engaged in assisting such officer;

            (2) Wardens, superintendents and keepers of prisons, penitentiaries, jails and other institutions for the detention of persons accused or convicted of crime;

            (3) Members of the armed forces or national guard while performing their official duty;

            (4) Those persons vested by article V, section 1 of the Constitution of Missouri with the judicial power of the state and those persons vested by Article III of the Constitution of the United States with the judicial power of the United States, the members of the federal judiciary;

            (5) Any person whose bona fide duty is to execute process, civil or criminal;

            (6) Any federal probation officer or federal flight deck officer as defined under the federal flight deck officer program, 49 U.S.C. Section 44921;

            (7) Any state probation or parole officer, including supervisors and members of the board of probation and parole;

            (8) Any corporate security advisor meeting the definition and fulfilling the requirements of the regulations established by the board of police commissioners under section 84.340, RSMo; [and]

            (9) Any coroner, deputy coroner, medical examiner, or assistant medical examiner; and

            (10) Any prosecuting attorney or assistant prosecuting attorney or any circuit attorney or assistant circuit attorney who has completed the firearms safety training course required under subsection 2 of section 571.111.

            3. Subdivisions (1), (5), (8), and (10) of subsection 1 of this section do not apply when the actor is transporting such weapons in a nonfunctioning state or in an unloaded state when ammunition is not readily accessible or when such weapons are not readily accessible. Subdivision (1) of subsection 1 of this section does not apply to any person twenty-one years of age or older transporting a concealable firearm in the passenger compartment of a motor vehicle, so long as such concealable firearm is otherwise lawfully possessed, nor when the actor is also in possession of an exposed firearm or projectile weapon for the lawful pursuit of game, or is in his or her dwelling unit or upon premises over which the actor has possession, authority or control, or is traveling in a continuous journey peaceably through this state. Subdivision (10) of subsection 1 of this section does not apply if the firearm is otherwise lawfully possessed by a person while traversing school premises for the purposes of transporting a student to or from school, or possessed by an adult for the purposes of facilitation of a school-sanctioned firearm-related event.

            4. Subdivisions (1), (8), and (10) of subsection 1 of this section shall not apply to any person who has a valid concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 or a valid permit or endorsement to carry concealed firearms issued by another state or political subdivision of another state.

            5. Subdivisions (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), (9), and (10) of subsection 1 of this section shall not apply to persons who are engaged in a lawful act of defense pursuant to section 563.031, RSMo.

            6. Nothing in this section shall make it unlawful for a student to actually participate in school-sanctioned gun safety courses, student military or ROTC courses, or other school-sponsored firearm-related events, provided the student does not carry a firearm or other weapon readily capable of lethal use into any school, onto any school bus, or onto the premises of any other function or activity sponsored or sanctioned by school officials or the district school board.

            7. Unlawful use of weapons is a class D felony unless committed pursuant to subdivision (6), (7), or (8) of subsection 1 of this section, in which cases it is a class B misdemeanor, or subdivision (5) or (10) of subsection 1 of this section, in which case it is a class A misdemeanor if the firearm is unloaded and a class D felony if the firearm is loaded, or subdivision (9) of subsection 1 of this section, in which case it is a class B felony, except that if the violation of subdivision (9) of subsection 1 of this section results in injury or death to another person, it is a class A felony.

            8. Violations of subdivision (9) of subsection 1 of this section shall be punished as follows:

            (1) For the first violation a person shall be sentenced to the maximum authorized term of imprisonment for a class B felony;

            (2) For any violation by a prior offender as defined in section 558.016, RSMo, a person shall be sentenced to the maximum authorized term of imprisonment for a class B felony without the possibility of parole, probation or conditional release for a term of ten years;

            (3) For any violation by a persistent offender as defined in section 558.016, RSMo, a person shall be sentenced to the maximum authorized term of imprisonment for a class B felony without the possibility of parole, probation, or conditional release;

            (4) For any violation which results in injury or death to another person, a person shall be sentenced to an authorized disposition for a class A felony.

            9. Any person knowingly aiding or abetting any other person in the violation of subdivision (9) of subsection 1 of this section shall be subject to the same penalty as that prescribed by this section for violations by other persons.

            10. As used in this section "qualified retired peace officer" means an individual who:

            (1) Retired in good standing from service with a public agency as a peace officer, other than for reasons of mental instability;

            (2) Before such retirement, was authorized by law to engage in or supervise the prevention, detection, investigation, or prosecution of, or the incarceration of any person for, any violation of law, and had statutory powers of arrest;

            (3) Before such retirement, was regularly employed as a peace officer for an aggregate of fifteen years or more, or retired from service with such agency, after completing any applicable probationary period of such service, due to a service-connected disability, as determined by such agency;

            (4) Has a nonforfeitable right to benefits under the retirement plan of the agency if such a plan is available;

            (5) During the most recent twelve-month period, has met, at the expense of the individual, the standards for training and qualification for active peace officers to carry firearms;

            (6) Is not under the influence of alcohol or another intoxicating or hallucinatory drug or substance; and

            (7) Is not prohibited by federal law from receiving a firearm.

            11. The identification required by subdivision (1) of subsection 2 of this section is:

            (1) A photographic identification issued by the agency from which the individual retired from service as a peace officer that indicates that the individual has, not less recently than one year before the date the individual is carrying the concealed firearm, been tested or otherwise found by the agency to meet the standards established by the agency for training and qualification for active peace officers to carry a firearm of the same type as the concealed firearm; or

            (2) A photographic identification issued by the agency from which the individual retired from service as a peace officer; and

            (3) A certification issued by the state in which the individual resides that indicates that the individual has, not less recently than one year before the date the individual is carrying the concealed firearm, been tested or otherwise found by the state to meet the standards established by the state for training and qualification for active peace officers to carry a firearm of the same type as the concealed firearm.

            571.070. 1. A person commits the crime of unlawful possession of a firearm if such person knowingly has any firearm in his or her possession and:

            (1) Such person has been convicted of a felony under the laws of this state, or of a crime under the laws of any state or of the United States which, if committed within this state, would be a felony; or

            (2) Such person is a fugitive from justice, is habitually in an intoxicated or drugged condition, or is currently adjudged mentally incompetent.

            2. Unlawful possession of a firearm is a class C felony.

            3. The provisions of subdivision (1) of subsection 1 of this section shall not apply to the possession of an antique firearm.

            571.101. 1. All applicants for concealed carry endorsements issued pursuant to subsection 7 of this section must satisfy the requirements of sections 571.101 to 571.121. If the said applicant can show qualification as provided by sections 571.101 to 571.121, the county or city sheriff shall issue a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement. Upon receipt of such certificate, the certificate holder shall apply for a driver's license or nondriver's license with the director of revenue in order to obtain a concealed carry endorsement. Any person who has been issued a concealed carry endorsement on a driver's license or nondriver's license and such endorsement or license has not been suspended, revoked, canceled, or denied may carry concealed firearms on or about his or her person or within a vehicle. A concealed carry endorsement shall be valid for a period of three years from the date of issuance or renewal. The concealed carry endorsement is valid throughout this state.

            2. A certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to subsection 7 of this section shall be issued by the sheriff or his or her designee of the county or city in which the applicant resides, if the applicant:

            (1) Is at least [twenty-three] twenty-one years of age, is a citizen of the United States and either:

 

            (a) Has assumed residency in this state; or

            (b) Is a member of the armed forces stationed in Missouri, or the spouse of such member of the military;

            (2) Has not pled guilty to or entered a plea of nolo contendere or been convicted of a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year under the laws of any state or of the United States other than a crime classified as a misdemeanor under the laws of any state and punishable by a term of imprisonment of one year or less that does not involve an explosive weapon, firearm, firearm silencer or gas gun;

            (3) Has not been convicted of, pled guilty to or entered a plea of nolo contendere to one or more misdemeanor offenses involving crimes of violence within a five-year period immediately preceding application for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement or if the applicant has not been convicted of two or more misdemeanor offenses involving driving while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or drugs or the possession or abuse of a controlled substance within a five-year period immediately preceding application for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement;

            (4) Is not a fugitive from justice or currently charged in an information or indictment with the commission of a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year under the laws of any state of the United States other than a crime classified as a misdemeanor under the laws of any state and punishable by a term of imprisonment of two years or less that does not involve an explosive weapon, firearm, firearm silencer, or gas gun;

            (5) Has not been discharged under dishonorable conditions from the United States armed forces;

            (6) Has not engaged in a pattern of behavior, documented in public records, that causes the sheriff to have a reasonable belief that the applicant presents a danger to himself or others;

            (7) Is not adjudged mentally incompetent at the time of application or for five years prior to application, or has not been committed to a mental health facility, as defined in section 632.005, RSMo, or a similar institution located in another state following a hearing at which the defendant was represented by counsel or a representative;

            (8) Submits a completed application for a certificate of qualification as defined in subsection 3 of this section;

            (9) Submits an affidavit attesting that the applicant complies with the concealed carry safety training requirement pursuant to subsections 1 and 2 of section 571.111;

            (10) Is not the respondent of a valid full order of protection which is still in effect.

            3. The application for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement issued by the sheriff of the county of the applicant's residence shall contain only the following information:

            (1) The applicant's name, address, telephone number, gender, and date and place of birth;

            (2) An affirmation that the applicant has assumed residency in Missouri or is a member of the armed forces stationed in Missouri or the spouse of such a member of the armed forces and is a citizen of the United States;

            (3) An affirmation that the applicant is at least [twenty-three] twenty-one years of age;

            (4) An affirmation that the applicant has not pled guilty to or been convicted of a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year under the laws of any state or of the United States other than a crime classified as a misdemeanor under the laws of any state and punishable by a term of imprisonment of one year or less that does not involve an explosive weapon, firearm, firearm silencer, or gas gun;

            (5) An affirmation that the applicant has not been convicted of, pled guilty to, or entered a plea of nolo contendere to one or more misdemeanor offenses involving crimes of violence within a five-year period immediately preceding application for a certificate of qualification to obtain a concealed carry endorsement or if the applicant has not been convicted of two or more misdemeanor offenses involving driving while under the influence of intoxicating liquor or drugs or the possession or abuse of a controlled substance within a five-year period immediately preceding application for a certificate of qualification to obtain a concealed carry endorsement;

            (6) An affirmation that the applicant is not a fugitive from justice or currently charged in an information or indictment with the commission of a crime punishable by imprisonment for a term exceeding one year under the laws of any state or of the United States other than a crime classified as a misdemeanor under the laws of any state and punishable by a term of imprisonment of two years or less that does not involve an explosive weapon, firearm, firearm silencer or gas gun;

            (7) An affirmation that the applicant has not been discharged under dishonorable conditions from the United States armed forces;

            (8) An affirmation that the applicant is not adjudged mentally incompetent at the time of application or for five years prior to application, or has not been committed to a mental health facility, as defined in section 632.005, RSMo, or a similar institution located in another state, except that a person whose release or discharge from a facility in this state pursuant to chapter 632, RSMo, or a similar discharge from a facility in another state, occurred more than five years ago without subsequent recommitment may apply;

            (9) An affirmation that the applicant has received firearms safety training that meets the standards of applicant firearms safety training defined in subsection 1 or 2 of section 571.111;

            (10) An affirmation that the applicant, to the applicant's best knowledge and belief, is not the respondent of a valid full order of protection which is still in effect; and

            (11) A conspicuous warning that false statements made by the applicant will result in prosecution for perjury pursuant to the laws of the state of Missouri.

            4. An application for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement shall be made to the sheriff of the county or any city not within a county in which the applicant resides. An application shall be filed in writing, signed under oath and under the penalties of perjury, and shall state whether the applicant complies with each of the requirements specified in subsection 2 of this section. In addition to the completed application, the applicant for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement must also submit the following:

            (1) A photocopy of a firearms safety training certificate of completion or other evidence of completion of a firearms safety training course that meets the standards established in subsection 1 or 2 of section 571.111; and

            (2) A nonrefundable certificate of qualification fee as provided by subsection 10 or 11 of this section.

            5. Before an application for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement is approved, the sheriff shall make only such inquiries as he or she deems necessary into the accuracy of the statements made in the application. The sheriff may require that the applicant display a Missouri driver's license or nondriver's license or military identification and orders showing the person being stationed in Missouri. In order to determine the applicant's suitability for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement, the applicant shall be fingerprinted. The sheriff shall request a criminal background check through the appropriate law enforcement agency within three working days after submission of the properly completed application for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement. If no disqualifying record is identified by the fingerprint check at the state level, the fingerprints shall be forwarded to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for a national criminal history record check. Upon receipt of the completed background check, the sheriff shall issue a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement within three working days. The sheriff shall issue the certificate within forty-five calendar days if the criminal background check has not been received, provided that the sheriff shall revoke any such certificate and endorsement within twenty-four hours of receipt of any background check that results in a disqualifying record, and shall notify the department of revenue.

            6. The sheriff may refuse to approve an application for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement if he or she determines that any of the requirements specified in subsection 2 of this section have not been met, or if he or she has a substantial and demonstrable reason to believe that the applicant has rendered a false statement regarding any of the provisions of sections 571.101 to 571.121. If the applicant is found to be ineligible, the sheriff is required to deny the application, and notify the applicant in writing, stating the grounds for denial and informing the applicant of the right to submit, within thirty days, any additional documentation relating to the grounds of the denial. Upon receiving any additional documentation, the sheriff shall reconsider his or her decision and inform the applicant within thirty days of the result of the reconsideration. The applicant shall further be informed in writing of the right to appeal the denial pursuant to subsections 2, 3, 4, and 5 of section 571.114. After two additional reviews and denials by the sheriff, the person submitting the application shall appeal the denial pursuant to subsections 2, 3, 4, and 5 of section 571.114.

            7. If the application is approved, the sheriff shall issue a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement to the applicant within a period not to exceed three working days after his or her approval of the application. The applicant shall sign the certificate of qualification in the presence of the sheriff or his or her designee and shall within seven days of receipt of the certificate of qualification take the certificate of qualification to the department of revenue. Upon verification of the certificate of qualification and completion of a driver's license or nondriver's license application pursuant to chapter 302, RSMo, the director of revenue shall issue a new driver's license or nondriver's license with an endorsement which identifies that the applicant has received a certificate of qualification to carry concealed weapons issued pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 if the applicant is otherwise qualified to receive such driver's license or nondriver's license. The requirements for the director of revenue to issue a concealed carry endorsement pursuant to this subsection shall not be effective until July 1, 2004, and the certificate of qualification issued by a county sheriff pursuant to subsection 1 of this section shall allow the person issued such certificate to carry a concealed weapon pursuant to the requirements of subsection 1 of section 571.107 in lieu of the concealed carry endorsement issued by the director of revenue from October 11, 2003, until the concealed carry endorsement is issued by the director of revenue on or after July 1, 2004, unless such certificate of qualification has been suspended or revoked for cause.

            8. The sheriff shall keep a record of all applications for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement and his or her action thereon. The sheriff shall report the issuance of a certificate of qualification to the Missouri uniform law enforcement system. All information on any such certificate that is protected information on any driver's or nondriver's license shall have the same personal protection for purposes of sections 571.101 to 571.121. An applicant's status as a holder of a certificate of qualification or a concealed carry endorsement shall not be public information and shall be considered personal protected information. Any person who violates the provisions of this subsection by disclosing protected information shall be guilty of a class A misdemeanor.

            9. Information regarding any holder of a certificate of qualification or a concealed carry endorsement is a closed record.

            10. For processing an application for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121, the sheriff in each county shall charge a nonrefundable fee not to exceed one hundred dollars which shall be paid to the treasury of the county to the credit of the sheriff's revolving fund.

            11. For processing a renewal for a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121, the sheriff in each county shall charge a nonrefundable fee not to exceed fifty dollars which shall be paid to the treasury of the county to the credit of the sheriff's revolving fund.

            12. For the purposes of sections 571.101 to 571.121, the term "sheriff" shall include the sheriff of any county or city not within a county or his or her designee and in counties of the first classification the sheriff may designate the chief of police of any city, town, or municipality within such county.

            571.104. 1. (1) A concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 shall be suspended or revoked if the concealed carry endorsement holder becomes ineligible for such concealed carry endorsement under the criteria established in subdivisions (2), (3), (4), (5), and (7) of subsection 2 of section 571.101 or upon the issuance of a valid full order of protection.

            (2) When a valid full order of protection, or any arrest warrant, discharge, or commitment for the reasons listed in subdivision (2), (3), (4), (5), or (7) of subsection 2 of section 571.101, is issued against a person holding a concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 upon notification of said order, warrant, discharge or commitment or upon an order of a court of competent jurisdiction in a criminal proceeding, a commitment proceeding or a full order of protection proceeding ruling that a person holding a concealed carry endorsement presents a risk of harm to themselves or others, then upon notification of such order, the holder of the concealed carry endorsement shall surrender the driver's license or nondriver's license containing the concealed carry endorsement to the court, to the officer, or other official serving the order, warrant, discharge, or commitment.

            (3) The official to whom the driver's license or nondriver's license containing the concealed carry endorsement is surrendered shall issue a receipt to the licensee for the license upon a form, approved by the director of revenue, that serves as a driver's license or a nondriver's license and clearly states the concealed carry endorsement has been suspended. The official shall then transmit the driver's license or a nondriver's license containing the concealed carry endorsement to the circuit court of the county issuing the order, warrant, discharge, or commitment. The concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 shall be suspended until the order is terminated or until the arrest results in a dismissal of all charges. Upon dismissal, the court holding the driver's license or nondriver's license containing the concealed carry endorsement shall return it to the individual.

            (4) Any conviction, discharge, or commitment specified in sections 571.101 to 571.121 shall result in a revocation. Upon conviction, the court shall forward a notice of conviction or action and the driver's license or nondriver's license with the concealed carry endorsement to the department of revenue. The department of revenue shall notify the sheriff of the county which issued the certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement and shall report the change in status of the concealed carry endorsement to the Missouri uniform law enforcement system. The director of revenue shall immediately remove the endorsement issued pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 from the individual's driving record within three days of the receipt of the notice from the court. The director of revenue shall notify the licensee that he or she must apply for a new license pursuant to chapter 302, RSMo, which does not contain such endorsement. This requirement does not affect the driving privileges of the licensee. The notice issued by the department of revenue shall be mailed to the last known address shown on the individual's driving record. The notice is deemed received three days after mailing.

            2. A concealed carry endorsement shall be renewed for a qualified applicant upon receipt of the properly completed renewal application and the required renewal fee by the sheriff of the county of the applicant's residence. The renewal application shall contain the same required information as set forth in subsection 3 of section 571.101, except that in lieu of the fingerprint requirement of subsection 5 of section 571.101 and the firearms safety training, the applicant need only display his or her current driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement. Upon successful completion of all renewal requirements, the sheriff shall issue a certificate of qualification which contains the date such certificate was renewed.

            3. A person who has been issued a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement who fails to file a renewal application on or before its expiration date must pay an additional late fee of ten dollars per month for each month it is expired for up to six months. After six months, the sheriff who issued the expired certificate shall notify the director of revenue that such certificate is expired. The director of revenue shall immediately cancel the concealed carry endorsement and remove such endorsement from the individual's driving record and notify the individual of such cancellation. The notice of cancellation of the endorsement shall be conducted in the same manner as described in subsection 1 of this section. Any person who has been issued a certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 who fails to renew his or her application within the six-month period must reapply for a new certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement and pay the fee for a new application. The director of revenue shall not issue an endorsement on a renewed driver's license or renewed nondriver's license unless the applicant for such license provides evidence that he or she has renewed the certification of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement in the manner provided for such renewal pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121. If an applicant for renewal of a driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement does not want to maintain the concealed carry endorsement, the applicant shall inform the director at the time of license renewal of his or her desire to remove the endorsement. When a driver's or nondriver's license applicant informs the director of his or her desire to remove the concealed carry endorsement, the director shall renew the driver's license or nondriver's license without the endorsement appearing on the license if the applicant is otherwise qualified for such renewal.

            4. Any person issued a concealed carry endorsement pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 shall notify the department of revenue and the sheriffs of both the old and new jurisdictions of the endorsement holder's change of residence within thirty days after the changing of a permanent residence. The endorsement holder shall furnish proof to the department of revenue and the sheriff in the new jurisdiction that the endorsement holder has changed his or her residence. The sheriff of the new jurisdiction may charge a processing fee of not more than ten dollars for any costs associated with notification of a change in residence. The change of residence shall be made by the department of revenue onto the individual's driving record and the new address shall be accessible by the Missouri uniform law enforcement system within three days of receipt of the information.

            5. Any person issued a driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 shall notify the sheriff or his or her designee of the endorsement holder's county or city of residence within seven days after actual knowledge of the loss or destruction of his or her driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement. The endorsement holder shall furnish a statement to the sheriff that the driver's license or nondriver's license containing the concealed carry endorsement has been lost or destroyed. After notification of the loss or destruction of a driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement, the sheriff shall reissue a new certificate of qualification within three working days of being notified by the concealed carry endorsement holder of its loss or destruction. The reissued certificate of qualification shall contain the same personal information, including expiration date, as the original certificate of qualification. The applicant shall then take the certificate to the department of revenue, and the department of revenue shall proceed on the certificate in the same manner as provided in subsection 7 section 571.101. Upon application for a license pursuant to chapter 302, RSMo, the director of revenue shall issue a driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement if the applicant is otherwise eligible to receive such license.

            6. If a person issued a concealed carry endorsement changes his or her name, the person to whom the endorsement was issued shall obtain a corrected certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement with a change of name from the sheriff who issued such certificate upon the sheriff's verification of the name change. The sheriff may charge a processing fee of not more than ten dollars for any costs associated with obtaining a corrected certificate of qualification. The endorsement holder shall furnish proof of the name change to the department of revenue and the sheriff within thirty days of changing his or her name and display his or her current driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement. The endorsement holder shall apply for a new driver's license or nondriver's license containing his or her new name. Such application for a driver's license or nondriver's license shall be made pursuant to chapter 302, RSMo. The director of revenue shall issue a driver's license or nondriver's license with concealed carry endorsement with the endorsement holder's new name if the applicant is otherwise eligible for such license. The director of revenue shall take custody of the old driver's license or nondriver's license. The name change shall be made by the department of revenue onto the individual's driving record and the new name shall be accessible by the Missouri uniform law enforcement system within three days of receipt of the information.

            7. A concealed carry endorsement shall be automatically invalid after thirty days if the endorsement holder has changed his or her name or changed his or her residence and not notified the department of revenue and sheriff of a change of name or residence as required in subsections 4 and 6 of this section.

            571.107. 1. A concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 or a concealed carry endorsement or permit issued by another state or political subdivision of another state shall authorize the person in whose name the permit or endorsement is issued to carry concealed firearms on or about his or her person or vehicle throughout the state. No driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 or a concealed carry endorsement or permit issued by another state or political subdivision of another state shall authorize any person to carry concealed firearms into:

            (1) Any police, sheriff, or highway patrol office or station without the consent of the chief law enforcement officer in charge of that office or station. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of the office or station shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (2) Within twenty-five feet of any polling place on any election day. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of the polling place shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (3) The facility of any adult or juvenile detention or correctional institution, prison or jail. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of any adult, juvenile detention, or correctional institution, prison or jail shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (4) Any courthouse solely occupied by the circuit, appellate or supreme court, or any courtrooms, administrative offices, libraries or other rooms of any such court whether or not such court solely occupies the building in question. This subdivision shall also include, but not be limited to, any juvenile, family, drug, or other court offices, any room or office wherein any of the courts or offices listed in this subdivision are temporarily conducting any business within the jurisdiction of such courts or offices, and such other locations in such manner as may be specified by supreme court rule pursuant to subdivision (6) of this subsection. Nothing in this subdivision shall preclude those persons listed in subdivision (1) of subsection 2 of section 571.030 while within their jurisdiction and on duty, those persons listed in subdivisions (2) [and], (4), and (10) of subsection 2 of section 571.030, or such other persons who serve in a law enforcement capacity for a court as may be specified by supreme court rule pursuant to subdivision (6) of this subsection from carrying a concealed firearm within any of the areas described in this subdivision. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of any of the areas listed in this subdivision shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (5) Any meeting of the governing body of a unit of local government; or any meeting of the general assembly or a committee of the general assembly, except that nothing in this subdivision shall preclude a member of the body holding a valid concealed carry endorsement from carrying a concealed firearm at a meeting of the body which he or she is a member. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (6) The general assembly, supreme court, county or municipality may by rule, administrative regulation, or ordinance prohibit or limit the carrying of concealed firearms by endorsement holders in that portion of a building owned, leased or controlled by that unit of government. Any portion of a building in which the carrying of concealed firearms is prohibited or limited shall be clearly identified by signs posted at the entrance to the restricted area. The statute, rule or ordinance shall exempt any building used for public housing by private persons, highways or rest areas, firing ranges, and private dwellings owned, leased, or controlled by that unit of government from any restriction on the carrying or possession of a firearm. The statute, rule or ordinance shall not specify any criminal penalty for its violation but may specify that persons violating the statute, rule or ordinance may be denied entrance to the building, ordered to leave the building and if employees of the unit of government, be subjected to disciplinary measures for violation of the provisions of the statute, rule or ordinance. The provisions of this subdivision shall not apply to any other unit of government;

            (7) Any establishment licensed to dispense intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises, which portion is primarily devoted to that purpose, without the consent of the owner or manager. The provisions of this subdivision shall not apply to the licensee of said establishment. The provisions of this subdivision shall not apply to any bona fide restaurant open to the general public having dining facilities for not less than fifty persons and that receives at least fifty-one percent of its gross annual income from the dining facilities by the sale of food. This subdivision does not prohibit the possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of the establishment and shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises. Nothing in this subdivision authorizes any individual who has been issued a concealed carry endorsement to possess any firearm while intoxicated;

            (8) Any area of an airport to which access is controlled by the inspection of persons and property. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of the airport shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (9) Any place where the carrying of a firearm is prohibited by federal law;

            (10) Any higher education institution or elementary or secondary school facility without the consent of the governing body of the higher education institution or a school official or the district school board. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of any higher education institution or elementary or secondary school facility shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (11) Any portion of a building used as a child-care facility without the consent of the manager. Nothing in this subdivision shall prevent the operator of a child-care facility in a family home from owning or possessing a firearm or a driver's license or nondriver's license containing a concealed carry endorsement;

            (12) Any riverboat gambling operation accessible by the public without the consent of the owner or manager pursuant to rules promulgated by the gaming commission. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of a riverboat gambling operation shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (13) Any gated area of an amusement park. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of the amusement park shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (14) Any church or other place of religious worship without the consent of the minister or person or persons representing the religious organization that exercises control over the place of religious worship. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (15) Any private property whose owner has posted the premises as being off-limits to concealed firearms by means of one or more signs displayed in a conspicuous place of a minimum size of eleven inches by fourteen inches with the writing thereon in letters of not less than one inch. The owner, business or commercial lessee, manager of a private business enterprise, or any other organization, entity, or person may prohibit persons holding a concealed carry endorsement from carrying concealed firearms on the premises and may prohibit employees, not authorized by the employer, holding a concealed carry endorsement from carrying concealed firearms on the property of the employer. If the building or the premises are open to the public, the employer of the business enterprise shall post signs on or about the premises if carrying a concealed firearm is prohibited. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises. An employer may prohibit employees or other persons holding a concealed carry endorsement from carrying a concealed firearm in vehicles owned by the employer;

            (16) Any sports arena or stadium with a seating capacity of five thousand or more. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises;

            (17) Any hospital accessible by the public. Possession of a firearm in a vehicle on the premises of a hospital shall not be a criminal offense so long as the firearm is not removed from the vehicle or brandished while the vehicle is on the premises.

            2. Carrying of a concealed firearm in a location specified in subdivisions (1) to (17) of subsection 1 of this section by any individual who holds a concealed carry endorsement issued pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 shall not be a criminal act but may subject the person to denial to the premises or removal from the premises. If such person refuses to leave the premises and a peace officer is summoned, such person may be issued a citation for an amount not to exceed one hundred dollars for the first offense. If a second citation for a similar violation occurs within a six-month period, such person shall be fined an amount not to exceed two hundred dollars and his or her endorsement to carry concealed firearms shall be suspended for a period of one year. If a third citation for a similar violation is issued within one year of the first citation, such person shall be fined an amount not to exceed five hundred dollars and shall have his or her concealed carry endorsement revoked and such person shall not be eligible for a concealed carry endorsement for a period of three years. Upon conviction of charges arising from a citation issued pursuant to this subsection, the court shall notify the sheriff of the county which issued the certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement and the department of revenue. The sheriff shall suspend or revoke the certificate of qualification for a concealed carry endorsement and the department of revenue shall issue a notice of such suspension or revocation of the concealed carry endorsement and take action to remove the concealed carry endorsement from the individual's driving record. The director of revenue shall notify the licensee that he or she must apply for a new license pursuant to chapter 302, RSMo, which does not contain such endorsement. A concealed carry endorsement suspension pursuant to sections 571.101 to 571.121 shall be reinstated at the time of the renewal of his or her driver's license. The notice issued by the department of revenue shall be mailed to the last known address shown on the individual's driving record. The notice is deemed received three days after mailing.